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BIOS 1300 SI- EXAM 3 REVIEW2 NOVEMBER 2014

  1. Blood Cell formation occurs in?

Yellow bone marrow

Red bone marrow

The matrix of bone tissue

The ground substance of bones

  1. Two-thirds of the weight of bone is accounted for by?

Crystals of calcium phosphate

collagen fibers

Osteocytes

Calcium-carbonate

  1. The membrane found wrapping the bones, except at the joint cavity, is the?

Periosteum

Endosteum

perforating fibers

A, B, and C

  1. The basic functional unit of compact bone is the haversian system or

Osteocyte

osteoclast

osteon

osseous matrix

osseous lamellae

  1. The vitamins essential for normal adult bone maintenance and repair are?

A & E

C & D

B & E

B complex and K

  1. The hormones that coordinate the storage, absorption and excretion of calcium ions are?

growth hormone and thyroxin

calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

calcitriol and cholecalciferol

estrogens and adrogens

  1. Classify the bones in the following diagram according to their shape

a.______

b.______

c.______

d.______

e.______

f.______

  1. The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates

epiphyseal growth has ended

epiphyseal growth is just beginning

growth of bone diameter is just beginning

the bone is fracture at the location

no particular event

  1. The primary reason that osteoporosis accelerates after menopause in women is?

reduced levels of circulating estrogens

reduced levels of vitamin c

diminishes osteoclast activity

increased osteoblast activity

  1. The non-pathologic loss of bone that occurs with aging is called

osteomyelitis

osteopororsis

osteopenia

osteoitis

osteomalacia

  1. The process of bone growth at epiphyseal cartilage is similar to

intramembranous ossification

endochondral ossification

the process of osteopenia

the process of healing a fracture

the process of calcification

  1. Which of the following conditions would you possibly observe in a child who is suffering from rickets?

abnormally short limbs

abnormally long limbs

oversized facial bones

bowed legs

weak, brittle bones

  1. Frank does not begin puberty until he is 16. What effect would you predict this will have on his stature?

Frank will probably be taller than if he had started puberty earlier.

Frank will probably be shorter than if he had started earlier

Frank will probably be a dwarf

Frank will have bones that are heavier than normal

The late onset of puberty will have no effect on Frank’s stature

  1. Which of the following lists contains only facial bones?

mandible, maxilla, nasal, zygomatic

frontal, occipital, zygomatic, parietal

occipital, sphenoid, temporal, lacrimal

frontal, parietal, occipital, sphenoid

  1. The unpaired facial bones include the

lacrimal and nasal

vomer and mandible

maxilla and mandible

zygomatic and palantine

  1. The boundaries between skull bones are immovable joints called

foramina

fontanelles

lacunae

sutures

  1. The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is correctly called the ______suture

parietal

lambdoid

squamous

coronal

  1. Blood vessels that drain blood from the head pass through the

jugular foramina

hypoglossal canals

stylomastoid foramina

mental foramina

lateral canals

  1. Cervical vertebrae can usually be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of

transverse processes

transverse foramina

demifacets on the centrum

the vertebra prominens

large spinous processes

  1. The side walls of the vertebral foramen are formed by the

centrum of the vertebra

spinous process

pedicles

laminae

transverse processes

  1. The part(s) of the vertebra that transfer(s) weight along the axis of the vertebral column is (are) the:

vertebral arch

lamina

pedicles

body

  1. Which of the following is primarily responsible for stabilizing, positioning, and bracing the pectoral girdle

tendons

ligaments

the joint shape

muscles

the shape of the bones within the joint

  1. In anatomical position, the ulna lies

medial to the radius

lateral to the radius

inferior to the radius

superior to the radius

  1. The point of the elbow is actually the ______of the ulna

styloid process

olecranon

coronoid process

trochlear notch

  1. The bones of the hand articulate distally with the

carpal bones

ulna and radius

metacarpal bones

phalanges

  1. The epiphysis of the femur articulates with the pelvis at the

pubic symphysis

acetabulum

sciatic notch

obturator foramen

  1. The atlas (C1) can be distinguished by the other vertebrae by

the presence of anterior and posterior vertebral arches

the lack of a body

the presence of superior facets and inferior articular facets

all of these

  1. The secondary spinal curves

help position the body weight over the legs

accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera

include the thoracic curvature

do all of these

do only a and c

  1. When you rotate your head to look to one side,

the atlas rotates on the occipital condyles

C1 and C2 rotate on the other cervical vertebrae

the atlas rotates on the dens of the axis

the skull rotates the atlas

all cervical vertebrae rotate

  1. Improper administration of CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) can force the _____ into the liver

floating ribs

lumbar vertebrae

manubrium of the sternum

costal cartilage

xiphoid process

  1. The presence of tubercles on bones indicates the position of

tendons and ligaments

muscle attachment

ridges of flanges

A & B

  1. At the glenoid cavity, the scapula articulates with the proximal end of the

humerus

radius

ulna

femur

  1. All of the following structural characteristics of the pelvic girdle adapt it to the role of bearing the weight of the body, except

heavy bones

strong and stable articulating surfaces

the arrangement of bursae around the joints

limited range of movement at some of the joints within the pelvic girdle

the arrangement of ligaments surrounding the joints

  1. The large foramen between the pubic and ischial rami is the

foramen magnum

suborbital foramen

acetabulum

obturator foramen

  1. Which of the following is an adaption for child bearing?

Inferior angle of 100 degrees or more between the pubic bones

a relatively broad, low pelvis

less curvature of the sacrum and coccyx

all of these

  1. The fibula

forms an important part of the knee joint

articulates with the femur

helps to bear the weight of the body

provides lateral stability to the angle

does A & B

  1. The tarsal bone that accepts weight and distributes it to the heel or toes is the

cuneiform

calcaneus

talus

navicular

  1. Jack injures himself playing hockey, and the physician who examines him informs him that he has dislocated his pollex. What part of Jack’s body did he injure?

his arm

his leg

his hip

his thumb

his shoulder

  1. The pelvis

protects the upper abdominal organs

contains bones from both the axial and appendicular skeletons

is composed of the coxal bone, sacrum, and coccyx

does all of these

does B and C

  1. In determining the age of a skeleton, all of the following pieces of information would be helpful except

the number of cranial sutures

the size and roughness of the markings of the bones

the presence or absence of fontanelles

the presence of absence of epiphyseal cartilages

the types of minerals deposited in the bones

  1. Jane has an upper respiratory infection and begins to feel pain in her teeth. This is a good indication that the infection is located in the

frontal sinuses

temporal bone

sphenoid bone

zygomatic bones

maxillary sinuses

  1. A synarthrosis located between the bones of the skull is a

symphysis

syndesmosis

synchondrosis

suture

  1. The articulation between adjacent vertebral bodies is a

syndesmosis

symphysis

synchondrosis

synostosis

  1. The anterior articulation between the two pubic bones is a

synchondrosis

synostosis

symphysis

synarthrosis

  1. Joints typically located between the end of adjacent long bones are

synarthrosis

amphiarthroses

diarthoses

symphyses

  1. The function of the articular cartilage is

to reduce friction

to reduce bony surfaces from contacting one another

to provide lubrication

both A & B

  1. Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?

shock absorption

nutrient distribution

maintenance of bionic balance

lubrication of the articular surfaces

waste disposal

  1. The structures that limit the range of motion of a joint and provide mechanical support across or around the joint are

bursae

tendons

menisci

a, b, and c

  1. A partial dislocation of an articulating surface is a

circumduction

hyperextension

subluxation

supination

  1. Abduction and adduction always refer to movements of the

axial skeleton

appendicular skeleton

skull

vertebral column

  1. Rotation of the forearm that makes the palm face posteriorly is

supination

pronation

proliferation

projection

  1. A saddle joint permits ______movement but prevents ______movement.

rotational, gliding

angular, linear

linear, rotational

angular, rotational

  1. Standing on tip-toe is an example of ______at the ankle

elevation

flexion

extension

retraction

  1. Examples of monaxial joints, which permit angular movement in a singular plain, are

The intercarpal and intertarsal joints

the shoulder and hip joints

the elbow and knee joints

all of these

  1. Decreasing the angle between bones is termed

flexion

extension

abduction

adduction

hyperextension

  1. Movements that occur at the shoulder and the hip represent the actions that occur at a ______joint

hinge

ball and socket

pivot

gliding

  1. The anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus are structures associated with the

intervertebral discs

knee and elbow

shoulder and hip

carpal and tarsal bones

  1. Subacromial, subcoracoid, and subscapular bursae reduc frictions in the _____ joint

hip

knee

elbow

shoulder

  1. Although the knee joint is only one joint, it resembles ______separate joints

2

3

4

5

6

  1. The hip is an extremely stable joint because it has

a complete bony socket

a strong articular capsule

supporting ligaments

all of these

  1. Dislocations involving synovial joints are usually prevented by all of the following except

structures such as ligaments that stabilize and support the joint

the position of bursae that limits the degree of movement

the presence of other bones that prevent certain movements

to position of muscles and fat pads that limits the degree of movement

the shape of the articular surface

  1. the connective tissue coverings of a skeletal muscle, listen from superficial to deep, are

endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium

endomysium, epimysium, and perimysium

epimysium, endomysium, and perimysium

epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

  1. The command to contract is distributed deep into a muscle fiber by the

sarcolemma

sarcomere

transverse tubules

myotubules

myofibrils

  1. The detachment of the myosin cross-bridges is directly triggered by

the repolarization of T tubules

the attachment of ATP to myosin heads

the hydrolysis of ATP

calcium ions

  1. A muscle producing near-peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in

incomplete tetanus

treppe

complete tetanus

a twitch

  1. The type of contraction in which the tension rises, but the load does not move, is

a wave summation

a twitch

an isotonic contraction

an isometric contraction

  1. Which of the following statements about myofibrils is not correct?

Each skeletal muscle fiber contains hundreds to thousands of myofibrils

myofibrils contain repeating units called sarcomeres

Myofibrils extend the length of a skeletal muscle fiber

Filaments consist of bundles of myofibrils

Myofibrils are attached to the plasma membrane at both ends of a muscle fiber

  1. An action potential can travel quickly from one cardiac muscle cell to another because of the presence of?

gap junctions

tight junctions

intercalated discs

both a and c

  1. The ______contains vesicles filled with acetylcholine

synaptic terminal

motor end plate

neuromuscular junction

synaptic cleft

transverse tubule

  1. An activity that would require anaerobic endurance is

a 50-meter dash

a pole vault

a weight-lifting competition

all of these

  1. Areas of the body where you would not expect to find slow fibers include the

back and calf muscles

eye and hand

chest and abdomen

a, b, and c

  1. During relaxation, muscles return to their original length because of all of the following except

actin and myosin actively pushing away from one another

the contraction of opposing muscles

the pull of gravity

the elastic nature of the sarcolemma

elastic forces

  1. According to the length-tension relationship,

longer muscles can generate more tension than shorter muscles

the greater the zone of overlap in the sarcomere, the greater the tension the muscle can develop

the greatest tension is achieved by sarcomeres where actin and myosin initially do not overlap

there is an optimum range of actin and myosin overlap that will produce the greatest amount of tension

both b and d are correct

  1. Which of the following activities would employ isometric contractions?

flexing the elbow

chewing food

maintaining an upright posture

running

writing

  1. The bundles of muscle fibers within a skeletal muscle are called

muscles

fascicles

fibers

myofilaments

groups

  1. Levers make muscle action more versatile by all of the following, except

changing the location of the muscle’s insertion

changing the speed of movement produced by an applied force

changing the distance of movement produced by an applied force

changing the strength of an applied force

changing the direction of an applied force

  1. The more movable end of a muscle is the

insertion

belly

origin

proximal end

distal end

  1. The muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve

VII

V

IV

VI

  1. The strongest masticatory muscle is the ______muscle

pterygoid

masseter

temporalis

mandible

  1. The muscle that rotates the eye medially is the _____ muscle

superior oblique

inferior rectus

medial rectus

lateral rectus

  1. The major extensor of the elbow is the ______muscle.

triceps brachii

biceps brachii

deltoid

subscapularis

  1. The muscles that rotate the radius without producing either flexion or extension of the elbow are the _____ muscles.

brachialis and brachioradialis

pronator teres and supinator

biceps brachii and triceps brachii

a, b, and c

  1. The powerful flexors of the hip are the ______muscles.

piriforms

obturator

pectineus

iliopsoas

  1. Knee extensors known as the quadriceps consist of the

three vastus muscles and the rectus femoris muscle

bicep femoris, gracilis, and sartorius muscles

popliteus, iliopsoas, and gracilis muscles

gastrocnemius, tibialis, and peroneus muscles

  1. Of the following actions, the one that illustrates that of a second-class lever is

knee extension

ankle extension (plantar flexion)

flexion at the elbow

a, b, and c

  1. Compartment syndrome can result from all of the following except

compressing a nerve in the wrist

compartments swelling with blood due to an injury involving blood vessels

torn ligaments in a given compartment

pulled tendons in the muscles of a given compartment

torn muscle in a particular compartment

  1. Mary’s newborn is having trouble suckling. The doctor suggests that it may be a problem with a particular muscle. What muscle is the doctor probably referring too?

orbicularis oris

buccinator

masseter

risorius