M.Tech in Bioelectronics
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
Answer either Part-A or Part – B
Write the answer in the block provided
PART – A
Q.1 In the design of logic circuits, there is a trade-off between
(a) Propagation delay & power dissipation (b) Switching time & fan-out
(c) Fan-out & power dissipation (d) Switching time & noise margin.
Q.2 The astable multivibrator has
(a) two stable states (b) one stable and one quasi-stable state
(c) two quasi-stable states (d) none of the above.
Q.3 A binary to decimal decoder is called 1 of 10 decoder, because
(a) at a time one i/p is high (b) o/p is high if all i/ps are high
(c) only one of its o/p lines is high at a time (d) it has 10 i/p lines
Q.4 A counter displays a sequence of numbers. If a reading corresponds to the hexadecimal number F 52 E, the next two readings are respectively
(a) F 52 F, F 520 (b) F 530, F 531
(c ) F 52 F, F 530 (d) F 52 F, F 52 G
Q.5 The Bipolar Technology giving the fastest logical family is
(a) DTL (b) TTL
(c ) ECL (d) None of these.
Q6. In sign magnitude numbers,
(a) the leading bit stands for the sign (b) the leading bit is part of the magnitude
(c ) the leading bit is always 0 (d) the leading bit is always 1.
Q.7 The ‘Excess 3 code’ for number 3 is
(a) 0 1 1 0 (b) 0 0 1 1
(c) 0 0 0 1 (d) 1 0 0 1
Q.8 The problem of ‘current hogging’ is associated with
(a) DCTL gates (b) DTL gates
(c) ECL gates (d) CMOS gates.
Q.9 In Logic circuits,
(a) The sink current is greater than source current
(b) The source current is greater than sink current
(c) The sink current flows from the driver to driver gates.
(d) The source current flows from the driver to driver gates.
Q.10 Lissajous patterns are used to measure
(a) voltage and frequency (b) frequency and phase shift
(c) frequency and amplitude distortion (d) amplitude and flux.
PART – B
Q1 Which of the following is an example of restriction endonuclease?
(a) Phosphorylase b (b) Protein kinase A
(c) BamH1 (d) Phospholipase C
Q2 A typical plasmid vectors containing a fragment of phage DNA including
its att site is known as
(a) Cosmid (b) Phasmid
(c) Bacmid (d) None of these
Q3 The blotting technique that has been devised to detect protein is known as –
(a) Eastern blotting (b) Western blotting
(c) Southern blotting (d) Northern blotting
Q4 The type of in-vitro culture technique, where an isolated ovary is grown is known as
(a) Embryo culture (b) Protoplast culture
(c) Tissue culture (d) Organ culture
Q5 Which of the following is the botanical name of garlic
(a) Alium sativum (b) Alium capa
(c) Apium graveolens (d) Capsicum annuum
Q6 Which of the following group of scientists developed the Hybridoma Technology for monoclonal antibody production?
(a) G.F. Koehler and T.H.Morgan (b) G. Haberlandt and G.F.Koehler
(c) C.Milstein and G.F. Koehler (d) T.H.Morgan and C.Milstein
Q7 To generate hybridoma cells for the production of monoclonal antibody, the following cell lines are used-
(a) Antibody producing normal B-lymphocytes with myeloma B-lymphocytes
(b) Antibody producing myeloma B-lymphocytes with normal B-lymphocytes
(c) Antibody producing normal B-lymphocytes with normal B-lymphocytes
(d) Antibody producing myeloma B-lymphocytes with myeloma B-lymphocytes
Q8 Which of the following protein digestive enzyme is most widely used in
detergent industry-
(a) Trypsin (b) Chymotrypsin
(c) Subtilisin (d) Papain
Q9 The technique of direct transfer of genes into plant protoplast is known as –
(a) electrophoresis (b) Electroporation
(c) genoploration (d) None of these
Q10 Which is the following sweetener is the fruit of biotechnology
(a) Aspartame (b) Glutartame
(c) Xanthane (d) None of these
ONE-YEAR certificate COURSE IN CHINESE (FULL TIME)
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
Part I - English Grammar
(A) Change the Parts of Speech of the following words as directed in the parentheses: (5´1=5)
1. Strong (into Noun) 2. Suffice (into Adjective)
3. Practical (into Verb) 4. Extend (into Adverb)
5. Destroy (into Noun)
(B) Give the opposite words for the following: (5´1=5)
1. Best 2. Able
3. Visible 4. Management
5. Technical
(C) Change the following Affirmative sentences into Negative ones keeping the meanings intact:
1. Only a kind man can act thus. 2. She is the best in her class. (5´1=5)
3. Jack is sometimes foolish. 4. Everybody will agree to my opinion.
5. A poor man’s life is hard.
(D) Change the following Assertive sentences into Interrogative ones keeping the meanings intact:
1. Everybody loves his country. 2. He was a fool to act thus. (5´1=5)
3. No one can trust such a liar. 4. I will never forget those happy days in school.
5. It does not matter if he comes.
(E) Choose suitable prepositions from the parentheses to fill up the blanks: (5´1=5)
1. He is not able to cope ______the situation. (with/in)
2. Jim is dull______Mathematics. (in/at)
3. Elizabeth is engaged______Mr. McDonald. (to/with)
4. Jack has brought disgrace ______his whole family. (for/to)
5. Mr. Smith died ______illness.(of/by)
(F) Change the Gender of the following nouns: (5´1=5)
1. Duke 2. Widow
3. Hunter 4. Cow
5. Host
(G) Change the following sentences with the correct form of the verbs given within the parentheses:
1. Mr. Thomson and his family______London tonight. (leave) (5´1=5)
2. They ______John for several months. (see)
3. Ruby ______here since 1991. (work)
4. Mr. Jones ______the letter before his friend comes. (write)
5. Simon ______to Scotland 30 years ago. (go)
(H) Write a letter (in not more than 200 words) - (15)
1. To your friend abroad describing an Indian festival you are fond of.
OR
2. To your father/mother explaining why you want to learn a foreign language.
OR
3. To the editor of a newspaper about the problems of blindly imitating the West.
(I) Write an essay (in not more than 300 words) on any one of the following: (20)
1. Environmental pollution 2. Globalization and India
3. National integration 4. The role of media in the Indian society
(J) Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below: (10)
It is a matter of common knowledge that in underdeveloped countries such as India with a growing population, there is an unusual pressure on land cultivation. Here, more people are engaged in agriculture partly or wholly than are necessary.
What is the result? When more people are engaged in agriculture than are really needed for the purpose, they are really surplus. If they are withdrawn from the rural areas and put in other occupations and professions it will not mean any decrease in agricultural output. On the other hand, it might increase, as it is said, “Too many cooks spoil the broth”. In absolute terms the total volume of rural unemployment is much larger than that of any other country. No wonder, it poses the most challenging problem for the planners to tackle.
1. Suggest a suitable title for the text. 2
2. In which literary category would you classify the text- 2
i. A report ii. A story
iii. An advertisement iv. An essay
3. Complete the following sentence with words or phrases that best suit the context. Choose from the alternatives suggested: 3x2=6
i. In India there are many more people engaged in land cultivation than are-
a) demanded b) needed
c) expected
ii. “They are really surplus” means-
a) there are too many of them b) they are really useless
c) they are really needed
iii. India has the largest number of-
a) unemployed persons in the urban areas
b) unemployed persons in the village areas
c) unemployed persons in the planning department
33
Part II - General knowledge on China
(K) Answer the questions (any ten): (10x2 =20)
1. What is the staple food of the Chinese people?
2. When was the People’s Republic of China founded?
3. Name a famous Chinese poet.
4. Name a great philosopher of China.
5. Name the last dynasty of China.
6. Name one mountain range of China.
7. Name the sea to the east of China.
8. Name three neighbouring countries of China.
9. Name the national animal of China.
10. Which is the longest river of China?
11. Name the Indian Prime Minister who visited China in 1993.
12. Name the Chinese President who visited India in 1996.
M. Sc. in APPLIED CHEMISTRY
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Total Marks : 100 No negative marks, for wrong answers Time : 2 hours
1. One kilowatt-hour is equal to
a) 3.6 x 105 J b) 3.6 x 106 J
c) 3.6 x 1012 J d) 3.6 x 102 J x2
2. If y=ò cost dt, then dy/dx is equal to 0
a)2x cosx2b) -2x cosx2
b)c) -2x sinx2d) 2x sinx2
3. If BELIEF is written as afkkdi, how is SELDOM written in the code ?
a)rdkcnl b) tfenp
b)c) rfkenn d) rfkjnp
4. What will be the degree of polymerization of polyethylene of average molecular weight of 56000?
5. What happens when fatty acid reacts with SOCl2 ?
6. Calculate the degree of freedom in a system containing solid CaCO3 and CaO and CO2 gas?
7. Does He2 molecule exist? Justify your answer.
8. Write down the chemical structure of monomer of each of the following polymers:
Polymethyl acrylate and Polypropylene
9. What is the main product of nitration of nitrobenzene and why it is so ?
10. Give the set of quantum numbers that describe an electron in a 3p orbital.
11. Describe how the origin of viscosity for gases and liquid are different.
12.Osmotic pressure of dil. aqueous solution of NaCl remarkably differs from ideal behaviour. Why?
M. A. IN CULTURAL STUDIES
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Maximum Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
The Written Test consists of the following :
(i) General information on North East India particularly of Assam.
(ii) Elementary knowledge about the artistic heritage of India with particular emphasis on North East India.
(iii) An essay to be written, on a topic of contemporary and general interest.
Moreover, short answer / objective type questions will be set mostly on General Knowledge relating to Art, History, Culture, Literature, Language, Contemporary events etc.
1. Locate the following spots shown in the map of India supplied herewith :
(a) Mysore(b) Varanasi
2. Label the names of three SAARC countries in the map supplied.
3. Write an essay on
(i) 17th FIFA World Cup or (ii) The Computer.
4. Deabbreviate - ISRO, ASEAN.
5. Name the authors of - War and Peace, Mrityunjay.
6. Choose the correct answer :
(a) Patua menas - scroll painter / glodmith / carpenter.
(b) Ramcharitnamas was composed by - Madhabdev / Tulsidas / Chaitanyadev.
7. Answer :
(a) Name one philosopher-scientist of ancient India.
(b) Name the only Indian recipient of a prize for peace.
8. Choose the right match : Manipur Onam
Tamil Laiharaoba
Kerela Kuchipudi
Andhra Pongal
M. Tech. in Electronics Design & Technology
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Full Marks :100 Time :2 Hours
Section A
1. Darlington paris are frequently used in linear ICs because they
a. resemble emitter followers.
b. can be readily formed from two adjacent transistors.
c. have enormous impedance transformation capability.
d. none of the above.
2. A free wheeling diode in a phase controlled converter
(a) causes smoothing of load current.
(b) improves the converter p.f
(c) reduces the current rating of the SCRs
(d) does all the above
3. For telephonic conversation the Bandwidth required is approximately
(a) 1KHz
(b) 6KHz
(c) 3KHz
(d) 8KHz
4. In the BPSK Scheme the number of transmitted symbols are
(a) 4
(b)2
(c) 6
(d) 8
5. MSK gives the minimum separation of two frequencies used for transmission based on the principle of
a. power levels
b. orthogonality
c.noise levels
d. centre frequency
6. In a mobile communication system , frequncy reuse is accomplished by employing
(a) a good modulation scheme
(b) a low noise amplifier
(c) a cellular structure
(d) an efficient coding system
7. In digital data communication, the type of transmission in which binary code is transmitted by shifting a carrier frequency between two preset frequencies is called
(a) FSK
(b)ASK
(c) PSK
(d) DPSK
8. ATM uses a fixed -frame structure called
(a) a header
(b) a cell
©a byte
(d) an octet
9. A time delay t0 in a signal of frequency w
(a) changes its phase spectrum by wto
(b) changes its phase spectrum by -wto
(c) changes both amplitude spectrum and phase spectrum by wto
(d) none of these
10. In order to achieve the same time dealy , higher frequency sinusoids must undergo
( a) lower phase shifts
(b) higher phase shifts
(c) no phase shifts
(d) none of these
11. In CMOS technology the static power dissipation is
(a) low
(b) high
(c) depend on design
(d) none of these
12. In VLSI technology the most commonly used pull up is
(a) load resistance
(b) nMOS E-mode
(c) C-MOS
(d) none of these
13. The trapped charges in the oxide of a N-channel E-MOS normally
(a) increases V TH
(b) decreases VTH
(c) do not effect VTH
(d) none of these
14. If we touch the gate terminal of a MOSFET,the ESD may damage the device by breaking down the
(a) drain substrate junction
(b)oxide layer
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) insulator - semiconductor interface
15. Alieasing distortion occurs
(a) if a signal is sampled at a rate lower than the Nyquist rate
(b)if a signal is sampled at a rate higher than the Nyquist rate
(c) if a signal is quantigied with less number of bits
(d) if the reconstruction D to A converter does not have proper Low pass filter
16. Which of the following is not a property of DTFT X(w)
(a) X (w) is 2 p periodic
(b) X (w) is always real
(c) X (w) is inevitable
(d) X (w) contains information about the corresponding analog spectrum
17. A digital signal has redundancy if
(a) the samples are correlated
(b) all the values of the samples occur with unequal probability
(c) a sample can be predicted from the previous sample
(d) all the above
18. VCO generates
(a) an output voltage
(b) an output frequency
(c) an output current
(d) none of these
19. Compensation of a second order system is useally done to
(a) increase its damping ratio
(b) decrease its damping ratio
(c) increase the time constant
(d) decrease the time constant
Section B
20 Design an asynchronous ripple counter of mod -10 using JK flip flop.
21. A 10 bit bipolar successive approximation type ADC with a reference voltage of +5 volts works from a clock of 10 MHz. Determine the resolution , maximum conversion error and maximum time of conversion.
22. A copper - Constantine thermocouple of sensitivity 40 mV/0C is heated to a temperature of 2000C with reference junction temperature at 250C.The output voltage is amplified by an amplifier of gain 100 and then displayed in a 31/2 digit multimeter. What is the displayed voltage and find also the resolution.
.
M. Tech. IN ENERGY TECHNOLOGY
Model Questions for Entrance Examination
Maximum Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
The written test consists of the following sections
A. General Aptitude in Energy :50 marks B. Mathematics : 20 marks
C. Physics : 15 marksD. Chemistry : 15 marks
Total Marks : 100 Time : 2 hours
SECTION -A
(General Aptitude in Energy)
1. Choose the correct answer (Use ü mark) (1x30)
I. Thermocouple sensors used for measurement of temperature are of the type
a) J.K.S and T b) A.C.N.and P c) K,L,T and U d) None of these
2. The alternative fuel used in automobiles is
a) Alcohol b) Glycol c) Benzol d) None of these
ll. Expand the following (1x10)
1. BEE
2. CFC
lll. Fill in the blanks (1x10)
1. Solar radiation consists of visible as well as ...... parts of electromagnetic radiation.
2. Green house effect leads to increase in the global mean......
SECTION B
(Mathematics)
Attempt the following (4x5)
1. Evaluate
ll. Find the maximum and minimum values of (x-1)(x-2)(x-3)
SECTION C
(Physics)
Attempt the following (3x5)
1. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 22%It operates between constant temperature reservoirs differing in temperature by 750C. What are the temperatures of the two reservoirs?
ll. Light strikes a sodium surface causing photoelectric emission. The stopping potential for the ejected electrons is 5.0 V and the work function of sodium is 2.2 eV . What is the wavelength of incident light?
SECTION D
(Chemistry)
Attempt the following (3x5)
1. What is meant by ‘Octane number’ of Gasoline? Mention the name of some additives that are used for increasing the octane number.
ll. What is the pHof 10-8 N HCL ?
The format is subject to change
M.A. IN ENGLISH
Model Questions For Admission Examination
Maximum marks :100 Time allowed: 2 hours
There are 10 questions in all. Ensure that you answer all questions. Please answer all questions in the space provided.
1. Use the correct forms of the verbs given in brackets to complete the following sentences:
a. If I…. ……….(be) as strong as you, I …………………..(kill) you. 2+1=3
b. If anybody had asked me I …………………(can tell) them everything.
2. Use appropriate question tags to complete the following sentences: 1x3=3
a. You will stay till lunch,……………..………...…..?
b. Don’t tell my mother,………………………?
c. I love coffee, ……………………….……..?
3. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words: 5
I began by arguing……..literature did not exist……..in that case can……….theory exist
either? There……two familiar ways in……… any theory can provide ……..with a distinct
purpose……….identity. Either it can…………..itself in terms of……..particular methods of
enquiry,….it can define itself in terms of the particular object that is being enquired into.
4. Correct the following sentences 3
a. The hostel is not suitable for disabled.
b. They are arriving on March the 25th.
c. The train fare is very cheap.
5. Explain the differences in the sense of plum in the two sentences given below: 2
a. I like plum jam very much.
b. She has managed to get a plum job.
6. Choose the appropriate word given in brackets to fill the blanks: 4
a. You should never ………………….between a husband and wife. (intervene/interfere)
b. We use rice, cereal and vegetables as the …………………… diet. (staple, stable)
c. I think the politician………………….….the crowd to violence. (incited/inspired)
8
d. Please …………………………... the posters off the wall. (peal/peel)
7. Develop (in about 200 words) the following outline to write a coherent paragraph, and also suggest an appropriate title. 16
literature – a vague term—different societies, different times, and different notions of literature—some talk of distinction between fictional and factual, imaginative and historical, creative and non-creative etc—some focus on language—literature as a special kind of or use of language—difficult to define precisely—questions of value, attitude, outlook arise---some kind of qualitative judgement involved—some way related to life ,reality, man’s response to these—various theories, various assumptions about literature—traditional distinction between literature-non-literature disappearing
8. Write an essay in not more than 250 words on any one of the following topics. 18
a. Theatre of the Absurd
b. Victorian Novel
c. Restoration Comedy
9. Write short notes in not more than 75 words on any five of the following: 5x5=25
sonnet, picaresque novel, neoclassicism, catharsis, metaphor, imagination
10. Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow it:
The Stranglehold of English Lit
Those questions, sister,
Those questions
stand
stab
jab
and gore
too close to the centre!
For if we had asked
why Jane Austen’s people
carouse all day
and do no work
would Europe in Africa
have stood
the test of time?
and would she still maul
the flower of our youth
in the south?
Would she? Your elegance of deceit,
Jane Austen,
lulled the sons and daughters
of the dispossessed
into a calf-love
with irony and satire
around imaginary people.