Periodic Test A Page 3
1. What chemist is credited with discovering the periodic table?
a) Moseley; b) Avagadro; c) Malinkov; d) El Perio; e) Mendeleev
2. The principle that states that the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers is known as: a) the periodontic table; b) Moseley’s law; c) periodic law;
d) the law of properties; e) synchronicity
3. Originally, the elements on the periodic table were arranged by: a) number of protons; b) atomic mass; c) atomic number; d) number of electrons; e) mass number
4. When the original periodic table was arranged as in question # 3, the position of some elements were switched. For example, the positions of Te and I were switched. This was done: a) because I has a higher atomic number; b) because I has a higher atomic mass; c) because I has more electrons;
d) in order to keep Te and I in groups with similar properties; e) all of the above
5. Moseley's work led to the realization that the elements on the periodic should be arranged in order of increasing: a) atomic mass; b) mass number; c) atomic number; d) atomic weight; e) atomic radius
6. Elements with similar properties are placed in the same:
a) period; b) shell; c) group; d) sublevel; e) energy level
7. Which of the following elements would have properties most similar to Fluorine?
a) Argon; b) Sulfur; c) Oxygen; d) Chlorine; e) Helium
8. In which block do you find Mg? a) s-block; b) p-block; c) d-block; d) f-block; e) e-block
9. In which block do you find Si? a) s-block; b) p-block; c) d-block; d) f-block; e) e-block
10. An element that has a valence configuration of ns2np3 would be in what group?
a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) 15; e) 18
11. The elements with atomic numbers 58 to 71 are: a) noble gases;
b) lanthanides; c) actinides; d) alkali metals; e) alkaline metals
12. Which of the following pieces of information could NOT be obtained from the periodic table?
a) atomic mass; b) atomic number; c) mass number; d) chemical symbol
13. In Period 3 there are 8 elements. What sublevels are being filled?
a) s; b) s and d; c) s and p; d) d and f; e) p and d
14. In the lanthanide and actinide series, electrons fill what sublevel? a) s; b) p; c) d; d) f; e) g
15. Elements which are soft, silvery, extremely reactive, and have an outer electron arrangement of ns1 are called: a) transition elements; b) alkali metals; c) alkaline-earth metals; d) noble gases
16. Helium is placed in group 18 because: a) its outer electron arrangement is ns2, the same as other members of that group; b) it has unique properties unlike any other element;
c) it has a totally filled highest main energy level and is non-reactive.
17. Transition elements are found in which block? a) s-block; b) p-block; c) d-block; d) g-block; e) h-block
18. Which of the following is NOT true about the transition elements: a) they’re good conductors; b) they are shiny; c) they are harder than s-block metals; d) they are more reactive than the s-block metals.
19. Which of the following is a halogen? a) Kr; b) Br; c) Se; d) As; e) Zn
20. Which of the following is a transition element? a) K; b) Sr; c) Zn; d) I; e) Xe
21. Which of the following is an alkali metal? a) Na; b) Mg; c) Fe; d) S; e) Cl
22. The s-block elements and the p-block elements are together called the: a) alkali-earth metals;
b) transition elements; c) main group elements; d) the sp elements; e) the common elements.
23. p-block elements include: a) metals; b) metalloids; c) non-metals; d) all of the above.
24. What most directly determines the chemical properties of atoms?
a) protons; b) atomic mass; c) the outermost electrons; d) atomic number
25. Group 2 elements, including Be and Mg, are known as: a) transition elements; b) alkali metals;
c) alkaline-earth metals; d) noble gases
26. Elements in group 18, which are non-reactive gases, are known as: a) transition elements;
b) alkali metals; c) alkaline-earth metals; d) noble gases
27. An element has an outer electron configuration of 4s23d1;
what period is this element in? a) 2; b) 3; c) 4; d) 5
28. For each successive electron removed from an atom, the ionization energy:
a) increases; b) remains the same; c) decreases; d) shows no pattern.
29. As you move left to right across a period, atomic radius:
a) increases; b) remains the same; c) decreases; d) shows no pattern.
30. Atomic radius increases as you move down a group because:
a) the elements have more electrons; b) the elements have more mass;
c) the elements have more shells; d) the elements are in a different block
e) the nucleus becomes more positively charged
31. In the formation of chemical compounds, valence electrons are those that may be:
a) lost only; b) gained only; c) shared only; d) lost, gained or shared.
32. The number of valence electrons in Group 15 elements is:
a) 2; b) 5; c) 8; d) 15; e) equal to the period number.
33. Which of the following elements would have the highest first ionization energy?
a) Be; b) Ca; c) Ba; d) Ra
34. The most electronegative group of elements are the: a) halogens;
b) alkali metals; c) alkaline-earth metals; d) noble gases
35. When an atom gains electrons to become a negative ion, its radius:
a) increases; b) decreases; c) stays the same.
36. The electron configuration of a sodium ion (Na+) would be:
a) [He] b) [Ne] c) [Ar] d) [Kr]
37. Which of the following would have the largest atomic radius?
a) Na; b) Li; c) P; d) Cl; e) Ar
38. It always takes more energy to remove a second electron from an atom than the first because:
a) the total negative charge of the remaining electrons is now more than the positive charge of the
nucleus; b) the electrons now occupy higher energy levels; c) the total negative charge of the remaining electrons is now less than the positive charge of the nucleus.
39. As you move across a period, atomic radius decreases because of:
a) the increasing positive charge of the nucleus; b) the addition of electrons;
c) the decrease in the number of protons; d) the addition of neutrons.
40. The first three ionization energies (in kj/mol) for Lithium are 520, 7298, and 11815. The reason for the massive jump in energy between the 1st and 2nd ionization energies is that:
a) after removing the first electron, the lithium ion now has a negative charge; b) after removing the first electron, the lithium ion now has an electron configuration of [He], which causes it to have extra
stability; c) after removing the first electron, the lithium atom now has a larger ionic radius.
41. Which of the following would have the largest radius?
a) Na; b) Na+; c) S; d) Cl;
42. Which of the following would you be able to find as a pure element in nature?
a) Ne; b) Cl; c) Li; d) F; e) K
43. Which of the following is isoelectronic with Al3+?
a) Ar; b) Mg; c) Na+; d) P3-; e) Ga3+
44. Which of the following has the smallest radius?
a) Ba2+; b) Cs+; c) Xe; d) I-; e) Te2-
45. Which of the following has the smallest radius?
a) C4+; b) C; c) C4-
46. Which of the following has the largest ionization energy?
a) K; b) Ca; c) Rb; d) Sr
47. Which of the following has the smallest electronegativity?
a) K; b) Ca; c) Rb; d) Sr
48. When sodium reacts with water, the products are: a) sodium hydride and oxygen;
b) hydrogen and oxygen gas; c) hydrogen gas and sodium hydroxide; d) hydrogen sulfide and oxygen
49. How many dots surround “C” in the lewis electron dot structure for carbon?
a) 2; b) 4; c) 6; d) 8
50. Which element was named in honor of Mendeleev? a) Periodicium; b) Russiananium;
c) Mendelevium; d) Tablegen; e) none of the above.