Name: ______

Loma Linda University

Human Biology

Unit 2Take-Home Exam

THE FOLLOWING 50 QUESTIONS ARE ONE POINT EACH

1. The nasal passages join with the oral passage to form the:

A. larynx

B. pharynx

C. trachea

D. uvula

2. The purpose of the uvula is to:

  1. Make sounds
  2. prevent food from going into nasal cavities
  3. prevent food from entering the lungs
  4. fight infection by being a lymph node
  5. None of the above

3. The area for gas exchange occurs within the:

A. trachea

B. bronchi

C. bronchioles

D. alveoli

4. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?

  1. gas exchange
  2. regulation of pH of the blood
  3. generate sounds for speech
  4. prevent food from entering the lungs
  5. hormone regulation

5. The primary functions of the spinal cord are:

A. intelligence and memory

B. speech, taste, smell, vision, hearing, and touch

C. simple reflexes and a link between brain and body

D. to control muscle activity and maintain balance

6. The frontal lobe is associated with:

A. vision

B. understanding of speech

C. hearing

D. planning and judgment

7. Consciousness is best associated with the:

A. whole brain

B. frontal lobe only

C. cerebrum

D. whole central nervous system

8. The function of the auditory tube is to:

  1. transmit sound waves
  2. allow passage of nerves from the ear to the brain
  3. equalize pressure between the middle ear and the outer atmosphere
  4. receive sound waves from the environment and transmit them to the inner ear

9. There are two divisions of the autonomic nervous system, they are:

A. the central and peripheral nervous systems

B. the sympathetic and parasympathetic

C. the voluntary and involuntary

D. the sensory and voluntary

10. In the Figure above, what best describes the structure labeled a?

A. oval window

B. round window

C. cochlea

D. pinna

E. tympanic membrane

11. In the Figure above, what is the function of the structure labeled b?

A. equalizes air pressure in inner ear

B. detects sound vibrations

C. determine movement in three planes

D. amplification of sound vibrations

E. acts as a chemoreceptor

12. What part of the brain controls the pituitary gland?

A. medulla

B. midbrain

C. cerebrum

D. frontal lobe

E. hypothalamus

13 Memory of events involves recall of:

A. people

B. short term memories converted to long term memories

C. things your body has done

D. both A and B

14. Rod and cones belong to which category of sensory receptors:

A. proprioceptors

B. somatic receptors

C. mechanoreceptors

D. chemoreceptors

E. photoreceptors

15. If a person has a spinal cord injury in their cervical region, they could have:

A. paraplegia

B. quadriplegia

16. The parasympathetic nervous system mediates which of the following:

A. "rest-and-digest"

B. "fight-or-flight"

17. Which of the following means the sense of smell?

  1. Olfactory sense
  2. Gustatory sense

18. Which of the following respond to movement?

A. proprioceptors

B. somatic receptors

C. mechanoreceptors

D. chemoreceptors

E. photoreceptors

19. The sense of taste is associated with which type of receptor?

A. proprioceptors

B. somatic receptors

C. mechanoreceptors

D. chemoreceptors

E. photoreceptors

20. Clouding of the lens of the eye, which produces an opaque condition, causes:

A. presbyopia

B. cataracts

C. glaucoma

D. myopia

E. astigmatism

21. A 50 year old person who has trouble focusing on things that are near has:

A. presbyopia

B. cataracts

C. glaucoma

D. myopia

E. astigmatism

22. When the cornea has an irregular shape:

A. presbyopia

B. cataracts

C. glaucoma

D. myopia

E. astigmatism

23. Which of the following functions in black and white, dim light vision?

A. rods

B. cones

24. Color vision depends on three types of cones that contain pigments sensitive to either:

A. red, green, or blue light

B. red, green, or orange light

C. red, yellow, or blue light

D. red, white, or blue light

25. Which of the following is responsible for blindness?

A. macular degeneration

B. cataracts

C. glaucoma

D. diabetic retinopathy

E. all of the above

26. Dizziness is also known as:

A. otolithitis

B. ruptured ear drum

C. vertigo

27. The tympanic membrane and ossicles participate in the sense of:

A. vision

B. balance/equilibrium

C. olfaction

D. gustation

E. hearing

28. Which of the following is NOT controlled by the pituitary gland?

  1. Metabolism
  2. Growth
  3. Urine output
  4. Childbirth contractions
  5. Insulin

29. The circus lady with a beard most likely:

A. has diabetes insipidus

B. has congenitally enlarged testes

C. has a malfunctioning adrenal gland

D. has a malfunctioning thyroid gland

30. What controls the endocrine system DIRECTLY?

  1. Thyroid
  2. Pancreas
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Pituitary gland
  5. Insulin

31. In which sex is bladder infection more common:

A. female

B. male

C. equal incidence

32. Old red blood cells are destroyed in the:

A. red bone marrow

B. lungs

C. lymph nodes

D. spleen and liver

33. The process of cells eating bacteria is called:

A. phagosomosis

B. phagocytosis

C. pinocytosis

D. cytolysis

E. None of the choices are correct.

34. The urethra connects the urinary bladder to the:

A. kidney

B. ureter

C. liver

D. exterior of the body

35. Urea is a waste product in the metabolism of:

A. fats

B. glucose

C. minerals

D. proteins

E. vitamins

36. Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in the:

A. neuron cell body

B. dendrites

C. synaptic knobs

D. myelin sheath

37. Color vision depends upon:

A. blue, yellow, green; cone pigments

B. red, blue, green; cone pigments

C. red, yellow, green; cone pigments

D. blue, red, yellow; cone pigments

38. A person who is farsighted cannot see close objects because:

A. the lens is too small

B. the optic nerve is damaged

C. the eyeball is too short

D. of the lack of rod receptors

39. Which division of the autonomic nervous system increases heart rate?

A. sympathetic system

B. parasympathetic system

40. Which part of a neuron sends signals?

A. dendrite

B. cell body

C. axon

D. synaptic knobs

41. The purpose of the larynx is to:

A. Produce sounds

B. Prevent food from entering the nasal cavities

C. Prevent food from entering the lungs

D. Both A and B are correct

E. Both A and C are correct

42. The order in which light reaches the lens of a human eye is:

A. pupil, cornea, aqueous humor, lens

B. lens, aqueous humor, pupil, cornea

C. cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens

D. cornea, pupil, aqueous humor, lens

43. Which of the following is NOT correct?

A. The lacrimal glands produce OIL to lubricate the eye

B. The lacrimal caruncle secretions are known as “sand” in the eyes.

C. A clogged cilliary sebaceous gland is called a sty

D. The lacrimal glands produce tears

E. Tears contain enzymes to kill bacteria

44. Which of the following is a true statement?

A. the lens regulates the amount of light reaching the retina

B. the rods are involved in color vision

C. there is a blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the eye

D. the cornea is the white of the eye

E. the conjunctiva has no blood vessels

45. Otoliths are found in:

A. semicircular canals

B. auditory tube

C. the cochlea

D. pinna

46. Which of the following is NOT controlled by the adrenal glands?

A. inflammation

B. estrogen

C. calcium levels

D. testosterone

E. adrenalin

47. Which of the following are diuretics?

  1. Alcohol
  2. Regular coffee
  3. Regular Coca-cola
  4. Both A and B above
  5. A, B, and C are diuretics

48. The tube that transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder is the:

A. urethra

B. ureter

C. collecting duct

D. proximal convoluted tubule

49. Which of the following is true?

A. During menstruation a female cannot get pregnant.

B. For maximum effectiveness, birth control pills must be taken every day at

the same time each day.

C. Skinny and athletic women are more likely to get pregnant than others.

D. Birth control pills should be stopped three months before planning conception

E. Endometriosis is when the embryo implants in the fallopian tube.

50. Which type of tumor is usually invasive and metastasizes?

A. benign tumor

B. malignant tumor

THE FOLLOWING 10 QUESTIONS ARE THREE POINTS EACH

51. Choose the following that is NOT associated with the American Cancer Society's CAUTION warning signals.

A. Indigestion or difficulty swallowing

B. A sore that does not heal

C. Unusual bleeding

D. Thickening or lump in breast

E. All of the choices are associated.

52. Choose the following that is NOT a characteristic of malignant cancer cells.

A. They do not differentiate.

B. They invade nearby tissues.

C. They create new blood vessels to feed on.

D. They contribute to the function of the body.

E. They metastasize.

53. An accumulation of cancer cells is called a:

A. lump

B. node

C. tumor

D. metastasis

54. Cancers in blood-forming cells are called:

A. lymphomas

B. melanomas

C. carcinomas

D. leukemias

55. A tumor developing in the pigment of the skin is a:

A. lymphoma

B. melanoma

C. sarcoma

D. leukemia

56. Which of the following is NOT recommended to prevent the occurrence of skin cancer?

A. use broad-spectrum sunscreen

B. stay out of the sun altogether from 10am-3pm

C. wear protective clothing

D. wear sunglasses

E. use tanning machines

57. Which increases chances of DNA change?

A. mutagen

B. carcinogen

58. Which cancers are associated with smoking cigarettes?

A. lung cancer

B. cancer of the larynx

C. cancer of the throat

D. cancer of the urinary bladder

E. All of the choices are correct.

59. Which vegetables are associated with cancer prevention?

A. peas and string beans

B. potatoes and rice

C. cabbage and broccoli

D. mushrooms and peppers

60. A tumor developing in a muscle is a:

A. lymphoma

B. melanoma

C. sarcoma

THE FOLLOWING 4 QUESTIONS ARE FIVE POINTS EACH

61. What diagnostic test is used to detect cervical cancers?______

62. What diagnostic procedures is used for breast cancer? ______

63. Ovulation usually occurs on day number ______of the monthly cycle.

64. Men may experience enlargement of this, making urination painful or difficult:

______