Law II Midterm 2016 17
Name: Date:
Law II Midterm 2016 17
1. ____Which of the following is not a goal of communication?
a. Enhanced professionalism
b. Less personal stress
c. More complaints
d. Increased officer safety
2. ____Communication is both intentional and unintentional.
a. True
b. False
3. ____What percentage of the suspect’s behavior changes when the message is sent
through body language?
a. 7-10%
b. 50-60%
c. 33-40%
d. 93%
4. ____When the voice and role conflict, people will more often believe the ______?
a. Voice
b. Role
c. Body language
d. Content
5. ____What accounts for 80-90% of all police complaints?
a. Delivery
b. Pitch
c. Attitude
d. Tone
6. ____Transferring information into a form in which it can be communicated is called what?
a. Decoding
b. Frame of Reference
c. Encoding
d. Code
7. ____A person’s frame of reference can be made up of which of the following?
a. Education
b. Sex
c. Where they grew up
d. All of the above
8. ____Which is not one of the three types of code used?
a. Symbols
b. Language
c. Paralanguage
d. Nonverbal
9. ____Facial expressions, eye contact, and gestures fall under which of the three types of
code?
a. Paralanguage
b. Nonverbal
c. Language
d. Symbols
10. ____Under kinetic communication, what percentage does body language make up of
human communication?
a. 7%
b. 12%
c. 65%
d. 16%
11. ____A person is better able to control their nonverbal kinetic signals than their verbal
kinetic signals.
a. True
b. False
12. ____Feedback helps with all of the following areas, except ______?
a. Decreasing productivity
b. Lowering stress
c. Lowering absenteeism
d. Lowering turnover
13. ____Noise can be a barrier to communication. Noise may include internal or external
noise.
a. True
b. False
14. ____Climate refers to an organizations social or work environment. Climate is not a
factor in communication.
a. True
b. False
15. ____What part of the body has the most profound impact on communication?
a. Face
b. Hands
c. Eyes
d. Mouth
16. ____Which of the four is not a category of movement?
a. Emblems
b. Adapters
c. Regulators
d. Encoders
17. ____Which of the following is not a barrier to listening?
a. Semantic barrier
b. Physical barriers
c. Gender Barriers
d. Noise barriers
18. ____Which is the third in the five stages of listening?
a. Sense
b. Interpret
c. Evaluate
d. Remember
19. ____A report is a brief notation concerning specific events and circumstances.
a. True
b. False
20. ____Uses for field notes include report writing and court.
a. True
b. False
21. ____A description of a person in an officer’s field notebook should include which of the
following?
a. CYMBALS
b. Serial numbers
c. Date and Time
d. Head-to-toe description
22. ____When writing a vehicle description, you should use CYMBALS.
a. True
b. False
23. ____Which of the following should not be included in an officer’s notebook?
a. Date/time of offense
b. Names of persons involved
c. Personal phone numbers
d. Case number/type of incident
24. ____Questions in field note-taking should include who, what, when, where, why, and
how.
a. True
b. False
25. ____What information should not be included when dealing with who is involved in the
incident?
a. Correct spelling of names
b. Address
c. Phone numbers
d. Hobbies
Matching 26-30 (list below 30)
26) _____ Medium
27) _____ Sender
28) _____ Message
29) _____ Receiver
30) _____ Feedback
A. The text or information of the communication; can
be verbal or nonverbal, even in a non-visual
environment
B. Transmits a message by selecting the words or
actions to convey meaning to the receiver and
solicits feedback from the receiver to make sure
the message was understood correctly
C. How the message is conveyed; the actions or text
(words written or spoken) of the message
D. Translates the sender’s message by giving
meaning to the actions or text of the sender
E. The receiver’s understanding of the message or
lack of understanding is transmitted back to the
sender
31) _____ Which of the following is “an individual speaker’s accent, inflection, intonation, and
speech-sound quality, which is usually judged in terms of prevailing standards of
acceptability”?
A. Pronunciation
B. Enunciation
C. Diction
D. Phonetics
32) _____ Most people speak at a rate of over ______words per minute.
A. 20−30
B. 100
C. 30
D. 50
33) _____ Which of the following is not part of the communication cycle?
A. Message
B. Medium
C. Translator
D. Receiver
34) _____ Concise word choice, clear enunciation, appropriate rate of speech, and appropriate
message length all describe which of the following key terms?
A. Diction
B. Pronunciation
C. Phonetics
D. Enunciation
35) _____ What is the length of air time for messages usually?
A. 10 seconds
B. 5 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 20 seconds
36) _____ Which of the following means “forming clear and distinct sounds into words”?
A. Pronunciation
B. Enunciation
C. Phonetics
D. Diction
37) _____ Effective communication is which of the following?
A. Professional
B. Clear and concise
C. Timely
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
38) _____ Clear radio communication occurs through the use of what type of communication?
A. Concise communication
B. Phonetic alphabet
C. Plain language
D. Ten codes
39) _____ Which of the following requires standardized words or phrases with specific
meaning?
A. Plain language
B. Phonetic alphabet
C. Clear speech policy
D. Ten codes
40) _____ Most departments use which type of radio communications?
A. Ten codes
B. Phonetic alphabet
C. Clear speech policy
D. Plain language
41) _____ Which of the following is not a challenge to communication?
A. Weather
B. Buildings
C. Terrain
D. Charged battery
42) _____ How long do you need to hold down the mic button before beginning your
transmission?
A. 2−3 seconds
B. 20−30 seconds
C. No time, just push and talk
D. 5−10 seconds
43) _____ The handset or radio should be held how far from the mouth when transmitting?
A. 5−10 inches
B. 2−3 inches
C. 10−20 inches
D. Mouth should be directly on the handset/radio
44) _____ In order to access the Texas Law Enforcement Telecommunications System,
officers must hold what type of certification?
A. Radio operators license
B. Texas Law Enforcement Telecommunications System
C. National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System
D. At least less than full access
45) _____ As soon as the desired TLETS/NLETS information has been obtained from the
Mobile Data Transmission (MDT) screen, the officer may save the information for
the duration of their shift.
A. True
B. False
46) _____ A citizen riding along with the officer is authorized to view TLETS/NLETS
information.
A. True
B. False
47) _____ Officers must exercise care and caution when using the MDT and operating a motor
vehicle.
A. True
B. False
48) _____ Officers shall log off from the MDT in which of the following situations?
A. When transferring the MDT to another user
B. At the end of the officer's shift
C. When the officer is away from the vehicle for prolonged periods for non-police
activities
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
49) _____ All data that is transmitted over the MDT is recorded for which of the following
reasons?
A. Public records request
B. To review the officer's work ethic
C. To know which officers are dating
D. To insure compliance with directives
50) _____ Codes for use and operation of MDTs are standard among all manufacturers.
A. True
B. False
51) During an interview of a sexual assault victim, the officer should remain calm and
professional. The officer should also express personal regret. Which of the following
is also part of the rapport building phase?
a) Leaning toward the victim to show active listening
b) Reassuring the victim of his or her safety
c) Obtaining the necessary facts
d) Using proper terminology
52) The following is a definition of which vocabulary word: "a broad term meaning simply
an oral or written declaration of assertion"?
a) Statement
b) Admission
c) Confession
d) Interview
53) The following definition is for which vocabulary word: “the questioning of a subject
who is not suspected of criminal activity at the time of the encounter”?
a) Interrogation
b) Statement
c) Interview
d) Admission
54) The following definition fits which vocabulary word: "a statement of acknowledgement
of facts by a person establishing that person's guilt of all elements of a crime"?
a) Interrogation
b) Interview
c) Confession
d) Admission
55) The following definition fits which vocabulary word: "the questioning of a subject
suspected of criminal activity that has been stopped or arrested"?
a) Interview
b) Interrogation
c) Admission
d) Confession
56) All of the rights listed below are requirements of Miranda v. Arizona except:
a) The right to remain silent
b) The right to be interrogated
c) The right to have an attorney present
d) The right to terminate the interview at anytime
57) Miranda v. Arizona addressed all of the following issues except:
a) Police must inform people in custody of their right not to incriminate
themselves
b) Police must inform people in custody of their right to obtain counsel prior to
questioning
c) Written statements cannot be made by people with less than a 9th grade
education
d) Evidence obtained during interrogations cannot be used in court if the person
in custody is not informed of his or her rights
58) Which of the following is not a type of person to be interviewed?
a) Suspect
b) Witness
c) Victim
d) Police officer
59) There are many strategies for interview and interrogation. Which type of questions
should be asked during an interview?
a) Rapid Fire Questions
b) Leading/Suggestive questions
c) Direct questions
d) Yes/No questions
60) Which factor is not included in the preparation for an interrogation?
a) Setting the environment
b) Knowledge of the case facts
c) Familiarity with suspect's background
d) Documenting the confession
61) It is crucial to control the physical setting, the subject being interrogated, and the
topic of discussion during an interrogation.
a) True
b) False
62) Which is not a characteristic of an interview?
a) Used to learn information about the suspect
b) Statements are used to confront suspects
c) Identify verbal and nonverbal behaviors
d) Builds rapport and establishes common ground
63) Interrogations are used to learn about a suspect's fears, concerns, and attitudes.
a) True
b) False
64) Guidelines for making a written statement by a juvenile include which of the
following?
a) Miranda warning given by a magistrate
b) Made in closed court
c) Signed statement taken by officer
d) Juvenile has not waived his Miranda rights
65) An interrogator should possess all of the following qualifications except:
a) Self Confidence
b) Inflexibility
c) Patience
d) Correct Attitude
66) Body language accounts for which percentage of human communication?
a) 12%
b) 7%
c) 65%
d) 16%
67) People are better able to control their nonverbal kinetic signals than their verbal
kinetic signals.
a) True
b) False
68) Lack of body movement is unnatural.
a) True
b) False
69) Which stress response state is defined by inward turned anger, reactive behavior,
and blaming.
a) Anger
b) Denial
c) Depression
d) Bargaining
70) Which of the five stress response states is characterized by complaining for
sympathy, minimizing, religious remarks, and excessive courtesy?
a) Bargaining
b) Acceptance
c) Anger
d) Denial
71) Which of the five stress response states is used to gain control and includes rage?
a) Denial
b) Bargaining
c) Anger
d) Depression
72) Which of the five stress response states includes rejection of reality and memory
lapse?
a) Depression
b) Bargaining
c) Denial
d) Acceptance
73) Which of the five stress response states is characterized by punishment statements or
third person comments?
a) Anger
b) Denial
c) Bargaining
d) Acceptance
74) Which interrogation strategy uses slow, chronological techniques that personalize
everything?
a) Ego dominant
b) Emotion Dominant
c) Logic Dominant
d) Sensory Dominant
75) Which interrogation strategy uses quick moving techniques, getting directly to the
point?
a) Sensory Dominant
b) Ego Dominant
c) Logic Dominant
d) Emotion Dominant
76) _____ A hate crime is a criminal action against an individual or a group motivated by
hatred of all except which of the following?
a) Age
b) Sexual orientation
c) Ethnicity
d) Race
77) _____ Which is the most prevalent factor that motivates hate crimes?
a) Sexual orientation
b) Ethnicity
c) Race
d) Victim disability
78) _____ Which offender typology is motivated by a such a strong commitment to bigotry they
make hate a career?
a) Thrill-seeking
b) Defensive
c) Retaliatory
d) Mission oriented
79) _____ Which offender typology is motivated by an extreme desire for excitement?
a) Thrill-seeking
b) Defensive
c) Retaliatory
d) Mission oriented
80) _____ Which offender typology acts in response to either a real or perceived hate crime?
a) Thrill-seeking
b) Defensive
c) Retaliatory
d) Mission oriented
81) _____ Which offender typology is based on committing hate crimes to protect one’s
neighborhood from real or perceived outsiders?
a) Thrill-seeking
b) Defensive
c) Retaliatory
d) Mission oriented
82) _____ The Church Arson Prevention Act of 1996 implemented what guidelines?
a) Requires the Department of Justice (DOJ) to collect data on hate crimes
compiled by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) using the Uniform Crime
Reporting System
b) Created a new criminal code that criminalized hate crimes involving intentional
bodily harm
c) Established a loan guarantee recovery fund for rebuilding
d) Created three-level sentencing guidelines increasing punishments for hate
crimes
83) _____ Which legislative act created new criminal codes criminalizing intentional bodily
injury in hate crimes?
a) Church Arson Prevention Act of 1996
b) Hate Crime Statistics Act of 1990
c) Matthew Shepard and James Byrd, Jr Hate Crimes Prevention Act of 2009
d) Hate Crime Statistics Act of 1990
84) _____ A characteristic shared by a group, such as race, language, religion, ethnicity,
nationality, or any other similar, common factor:
a) Race
b) National origin
c) Protected characteristic
d) Element of a hate crime
85) _____ A perpetrator may act for reasons such as resentment, jealousy, or a desire for
peer approval:
a) Bias indicator
b) Reason for hate crime
c) Secondary injury
d) Security concerns
86) _____ Which of the following is a reason for a hate crime?
a) The offender and the victim belong to a different racial, religious, ethnic,
national origin, or sexual orientation group
b) The perpetrator may have no feelings toward the targeted individual, only
toward the group in which the individual belongs
c) The perpetrator feels hostility toward all persons outside his or her own group
d) All of the above
87) _____ A group having real or putative common ancestry, memories of a shared past, and
a cultural focus upon one or more symbolic elements which define the group’s
identity:
a) National origin
b) Race
c) Sexual Orientation
d) Ethnic group
88) _____ Citizenship, a cultural affiliation to a national group, which may be linked to a state
other than that of which the person is a citizen:
a) Ethnic group
b) Race
c) Nationality
d) National origin
89) _____ A legal bond between a person and a state, does not indicate the person’s ethnic
origin:
a) National origin
b) Sexual Orientation
c) Nationality
d) Ethnicity
90) _____ A local geographic or global human population distinguished as a more or less
distinct group by genetically transmitted physical characteristics:
a) Race
b) National origin
c) Nationality
d) Ethnicity
91. _____ Which of the following is not a myth about anger?
A. Getting angry is the only way to get things done
B. There are many ways to deal with anger
C. Strongly confronting angry people will back them down
D. Ignore it and it will go away
92. _____ “Controlling yourself” includes which of the following techniques?
A. Holding your breathe
B. Negative self-talk
C. Counting to three
D. Relaxing
93. _____ Which of the following is one of the most effective anger management
techniques?
A. Think before you speak
B. Get some exercise
C. Respond rather than react
D. Use humor
94. _____ Which of the following is a sign of when to seek help?
A. Knowing what anger is
B. Determining what triggers your anger
C. Responding in a passive-aggressive manner
D. Exploring underlying feelings
95. _____ Learning better ways to communicate is a useful technique for anger
management.
A. True
B. False
96. _____ While outwardly submissive, indecisive, and helpless, inside there may be inner
conflict, tension, stress, and an inability to meet one’s own needs fueling feelings
of frustration and anger. This defines which type of behavior?
A. Aggressive
B. Passive-aggressive
C. Passive
D. Assertive
97. _____ This type of behavior involves expressing, beliefs, feelings, and preferences in a
way which is direct, honest, and appropriate and shows a high degree of
respect.
A. Passive
B. Assertive
C. Aggressive
D. Passive-aggressive
98. _____ Behavior that demands self-expression, attacks, or humiliates other people,
generally in a way which shows lack of respect for others is which of the
following?
A. Aggressive
B. Assertive
C. Passive
D. Passive-Aggressive
99. _____ Which of the following is not one of the six types of difficult people?
A. Uncooperative
B. Consistent
C. Lackadaisical
D. Whining
100. _____ Which of the following is a strategy for dealing with difficult people?
A. Stop wishing they were different
B. Argue and don’t acknowledge them
C. Judge others prior to communication
D. Listen to what is being said without keeping an open mind