1. Which of the following is an activity that agents perform on behalf of the athletes they represent:
A. Team contract negotiations only
B. Hall of fame endorsements
C. Various contract negotiations
D. Team valuation services
2. What do athletes sometimes hire to help them organize charity tournaments?
A. Marketing firms
B. Sponsors
C. Agents
D. Recruiters
3. When a league blocks the broadcast of a certain game in a certain territory, it is known as a(n)
A. antitrust violation.
B. blackout.
C. injunction.
D. right of publicity.
4. Which law makes restraining free trade and competition illegal?
A. The Sherman Antitrust Act
B. The Lanham Act
C. The National Labor Relations Act
D. The Sports Broadcasting Act of 1961
5. Which of the following is an unfair, anticompetitive trade practice in sport/event marketing:
A. Trademark infringement
B. Loss prevention
C. Employee strike
D. Sponsorship exclusivity
6. When professional athletes negotiate salaries, playing conditions, and contract terms as a single unit, their union is engaging in
A. competitive advantage.
B. labor resistance.
C. free agency.
D. collective bargaining.
7. Salaries, contracts, and profit sharing are often the issues that create conflicts between sports' leagues and
A. team owners.
B. sponsoring organizations.
C. individual managers.
D. players' associations.
8. Which of the following is an example of a governing body in the sport industry:
A. International Olympic Committee
B. NCAA Men's Basketball Championship
C. Washington Nationals Baseball Team
D. Rahal Letterman Lanigan Racing
9. Which of the following are trade barriers that are likely to limit a sport-equipment manufacturer's ability to export its products to foreign countries:
A. Trade agreements and industrialization
B. Licenses and outputs
C. Quotas and tariffs
D. Globalization and embargoes
10. When a sporting-goods manufacturer decides to sell to businesses located in another country, it should consider the country's
A. profit margins.
B. trade restrictions.
C. cost of goods.
D. selling motives.
11. A business that randomly surveys 200 customers to learn their opinions about a new product is collecting
______marketing information.
A. scientific
B. confidential
C. primary
D. technical
12. Businesses collect marketing information from other sources in order to find out what is happening in the
A. research department.
B. external environment.
C. parent corporation.
D. internal organization.
13. Businesses often collect marketing information from customers in order to learn which products
A. earn the highest profits.
B. meet specific design standards.
C. sell best in certain locations.
D. qualify for vendor discounts.
14. Which of the following is useful marketing information that a business might obtain by analyzing a customer database:
A. Expense involved in developing a customer database
B. Average customer is married, owns home, earns $50,000 a year
C. Federal identification numbers for current and past customers
D. Total sales for each month of the previous year
15. When analyzing the historical data in a data warehouse, which of the following is true of its data:
A. Related data are grouped together in folders.
B. The data change as modifications are made to the database.
C. The data are static.
D. Data maintain the uniqueness provided in their operational applications.
16. What should businesses try to achieve when manipulating data for information analysis?
A. Exploratory research
B. Secondary information
C. Program development
D. Accurate interpretation
17. A business that conducts research and finds that most of its customers visit the business four times a week has identified the
A. median.
B. mode.
C. mean.
D. range.
18. Which of the following is an example of range:
A. Most consumers buy four CDs per month.
B. Consumers buy an average of five CDs per month.
C. Consumers buy between three and seven CDs per month.
D. Half of all consumers buy more than five CDs per month.
19. What do researchers often use to summarize and interpret vast amounts of numeric information?
A. Research questionnaires
B. Descriptive statistics
C. Hypothetical samples
D. Independent variables
20. Which of the following must coincide when using descriptive statistics in order to have normally distributed data:
A. Range, dispersion, confidence interval
B. Ordinal, nominal, binomial
C. Mean, median, mode
D. Standard deviation, percentiles, pictorial representations
21. One reason that seat licenses and premium seating are growing trends in sport/event marketing is because these practices are
A. sales policies.
B. pricing strategies.
C. advertising methods.
D. revenue sources.
22. Which of the following is a trend in the sport/event industry:
A. Premium seating options are yielding less revenue for sport/event facilities than other types of seating.
B. Relationship marketing is becoming less important to sport/event organizations as technology evolves.
C. Due to the high level of media clutter, fewer businesses are participating in sport/event sponsorships.
D. Sport/Event facilities are evolving into complete entertainment centers with interactive activities.
23. The NHL, the NFL, and the CFL are becoming more interested in investing in the development of recreational sports for youths in order to
A. appeal to low-income individuals.
B. encourage sedentary lifestyles.
C. comply with local regulations.
D. attract more fans.
24. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective marketing report:
A. Explains role of executive management
B. Contains names of contributing editors
C. Provides industry review information
D. Answers specific research questions
25. What part of a marketing-research report would be mentioned only briefly in an oral presentation?
A. Research methods
B. Relevant information
C. Pertinent data
D. Research findings
26. Stephanie has completed a market-research project to identify changing consumer trends that will affect her company and its market position. She has learned many interesting demographic trends occurring in the population. What type of data should she include in her report to management?
A. Information that is relevant to the marketing decisions that management must make
B. All the information collected so management can decide what is important
C. Information that applies only to people not currently part of the target market
D. Information that applies only to the company's current target market
27. What type of sponsorship objective involves bartering for goods and services?
A. Cost avoidance
B. Revenue generation
C. Activation
D. Promotion
28. Obtaining the right to name a sport or entertainment event is often one of the objectives of a(n)
A. franchise arrangement.
B. sponsorship.
C. affiliation.
D. licensing agreement
29. Sport/Event marketers often identify the sponsorship potential of a specific business by researching the company's sponsorship history and understanding its
A. sponsorship objectives.
B. manufacturing methods.
C. financial policies.
D. quantity standards.
30. Which of the following would an event marketer most probably contact when seeking sponsorship for an upcoming auto race:
A. Nonprofit organizations
B. Related businesses
C. Athletic competitors
D. Charitable organizations
31. Why should sport/event marketers develop proof-of-performance packages for sponsors?
A. To provide information about the facility
B. To explain the type of sport/event
C. To list the important participants
D. To help sponsors justify the investment
32. Which of the following is the first step in a sponsorship presentation:
A. Create interest in your organization or event.
B. Give event details.
C. Create interest in the sponsorship opportunity.
D. Explain how the prospective sponsor can get involve
33. Bank of America is the only bank affiliated with your sport/event organization. This benefit is called
A. value in kind (VIK).
B. exclusivity.
C. "ownership."
D. presenting sponsorship.
34. Taco Bell doesn't want its message to get lost among the messages of your team's other sponsors, so you offer to name the pregame show "The Taco Bell Pregame Report." This benefit is called
A. sales and sampling opportunities.
B. "ownership."
C. exclusivity.
D. fund-raising opportunities.
35. When writing a proposal for a potential sponsor, sport/event marketers should clearly emphasize sponsorship value and
A. deadlines.
B. liability.
C. benefits.
D. confidentiality.
36. An important part of negotiating a sport/event sponsorship contract involves both the sport/event and the sponsor agreeing on the
A. date and time of the sport/event.
B. fee and payment schedule.
C. size and interest of the audience.
D. cost of planning and production.
37. When preparing a sponsorship agreement, it is important for the sport/event to include detailed information concerning the sponsor's
A. marketing rights.
B. selling policies.
C. financing sources.
D. hiring practices.
38. Because a prospective sponsor may have questions about the sponsorship proposal, an event organizer should plan to
A. reinforce important deadlines.
B. conduct follow-up activities.
C. evaluate sponsorship activities.
D. discuss sponsorship benefits.
39. A sport/event planner contacting a local business about supporting an upcoming tennis tournament is an example of following up with potential
A. participants.
B. corporate sponsors.
C. paying customers.
D. spectators.
40. Immediately following a meeting with a potential event sponsor, an event organizer should
A. adjust the pricing options in order to obtain the sale.
B. fax a copy of the proposal to the decision maker.
C. ask the meeting participants for sponsorship referrals.
D. send a thank-you card to each of the meeting participants.
41. By assigning a staff member to communicate and coordinate activities with each of its sponsors, a sport/event organization facilitates goodwill by
A. creating expanded advertising opportunities.
B. maximizing mass-media exposure.
C. processing special orders.
D. providing efficient, ongoing service.
42. What is a benefit to a sports team of coordinating outreach projects with local community organizations?
A. Generates public support for a team
B. Attracts athletes from other sports
C. Decreases the need to advertise
D. Improves relations with the media
43. The primary objective of developing sport/event public-relations strategies is to
A. encourage local businesses to purchase more tickets, concessions, and merchandise.
B. develop positive relationships with corporate sponsors and advertisers.
C. promote publicity efforts with key members of the media and business community.
D. establish a feeling of goodwill with all of the organization's fan bases.
44. Sport/Event marketers use public-relations strategies to create and maintain
A. low profiles.
B. suitable illusions.
C. specific images.
D. indifferent attitudes.
45. What variable might increase attendance at a professional soccer game?
A. A postgame dinner for team players and their families
B. Mass distribution of the team's sports program to the fans and media
C. Offering a wide variety of food and beverages at the concession stands
D. A pregame autograph and photo session for fans with the team's players
46. Which of the following is an example of using a special event as a sales-promotion strategy to increase ticket sales:
A. Advertising prices in a community publication
B. Holding a contest during a game or performance
C. Using telemarketers to contact a target audience
D. Planning an interview with a popular columnist
47. What should every sport organization do before registering a trademark?
A. Hire "logo cops" to look for counterfeit merchandise
B. Conduct a trademark search for conflicting/similar marks
C. Develop a licensing program
D. Offer guidelines for consumers on how to distinguish real products from fake
48. What portion of the license agreement specifies the exact begin and end dates of the contract?
A. License grant
B. Term
C. Warranties and obligations
D. Restrictions and requirements
49. What does trade dress protect?
A. The distinctive logo/graphics of a good or service
B. The distinctive slogan of a good or service
C. The distinctive appearance/image of a good or service
D. The distinctive name of a good or service
50. Which of the following is a factor that businesses often consider when selecting advertising agencies:
A. Accounting system
B. Performance record
C. Work environment
D. Staff organization
51. A characteristic of a full-service advertising agency is that it contains a
A. creative department.
B. television studio.
C. printing facility.
D. talent agency.
52. How much would a business budget for promotion next year if it allocates 10% of expected sales for promotional activities, this year's sales were $2.5 million, and the business estimates a 5% increase in sales for the coming year?
A. $262,500
B. $255,000
C. $250,000
D. $265,500
53. A small start-up company that sells its products to other businesses might consider allocating a large portion of its promotional budget to ______activities.
A. publicity
B. advertising
C. research
D. personal selling
54. What is the primary factor that marketers must consider when allocating funds to the promotional budget?
A. Promotional mix
B. Corporate accounting system
C. Inventory levels
D. Organization's size
55. In which of the following situations might a business decide to increase the percent of net sales that it allocates to its promotional budget:
A. Radio stations are charging more.
B. Suppliers want more coverage.
C. Consumers want more coupons.
D. Competitors are spending more.
56. A business coordinates its advertising, visual merchandising, and special events in order to
A. develop policies.
B. forecast sales.
C. attract customers.
D. improve relations.
57. When should sport/event organizers consider hiring a promotional agency?
A. Before corporate sponsors have been secured
B. If a large event is scheduled in many cities over time
C. After a small event has established a positive reputation
D. Upon hiring additional personnel to oversee promotional efforts
58. What type of ticket/seating arrangement do sport venues sell to accommodate spectators who are price conscious and are willing to occupy any available seats on a first-come, first-serve basis?
A. Reserved
B. General admission
C. Box
D. Aisle
59. Which of the following is a place decision that must be made in sports and entertainment marketing:
A. Should direct mail be sent to last season's ticket holders?
B. Will local or national media be used?
C. How will fans obtain the schedule of events?
D. Where will ticket outlets be found?
60. An increase in ticket prices is most accepted by fans if a sport has a(n) ______demand for tickets.
A. inelastic
B. low
C. elastic
D. unitary