Questions:
1. DNA and RNA are polymers composed of repeated units called:
A. nucleosugars B. nucleotides C. bases D. sugars
2. Nucleic acids are important because they:
A. act as buffers B. are the basic unit of neutral fats C. act as enzymes
D. direct the synthesis of proteins
3. Eukaryotes:
A. lack a membrane – bound nucleus B. were successful because they developed sexual reproduction, which provided greater genetic variability and made possible the great diversity of life on the earth C. are anaerobic and evolved before the accumulation of an oxygen – rich atmosphere D. are bacteria – like organisms
4. Organisms whose cells contain membrane-enclosed nuclei are collectively called ______.
5. Proteins that play an important role in chemical reactions are called ______.
6. Proteins are polymers of amino acids joined by ______bonds.
7. Twisting of the amino acid chains in a protein into an alpha – helix is referred to as the ______structure of the protein, and folding of the helix is the ______structure.
8. The two kinds of nucleic acids in cells are ______and ______.
9. Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides, each of which contains a ______, ______, and a ______.
10. Organisms that depend on nutrients which they have not synthesized are called ______.
11. Organisms that lack a true nucleus are called ______.
12. Examples of prokaryotes are ______and ______.
13. A characteristic of science is that:
A. it is not explained by natural laws B. it is testable C. its conclusions are final D. it is not falsifiable
14. Carbohydrates are compounds that:
A. are made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B. function as enzymes
C. form steroids D. function in protein synthesis
15. The basic structural and functional unit of life is:
A. DNA B. the cell C. the nucleus D. protein
16. The plasma membrane is:
A. a rather static structure B. not a permeability barrier to the movement of materials into and out of the cell C. composed of proteins and carbohydrates
D. composed of lipids and proteins
17. Microtubules:
A. are smaller than microfilaments B. are holes in the plasma membrane through which the cell obtains water C. give the striaited appearance to skeletal muscle D. play a vital role in moving chromosomes toward the daughter cells during cell division
18. Osmosis:
A. is the diffusion of water molecules from an area of higher to lower water concentration through a selectively permeable membrane B. does not result in a volume change C. involves active transport D. all of these
19. Chromosomes are not visible during:
A. metaphase B. interphase C. prophase D. anaphase
20. The main function of cellular respiration is to:
A. produce carbon dioxide B. produce ATP C. break down glucose D. produce water
21. During glycolysis:
A. no ATP is produce d B. pyruvic acid is produced C. oxygen is used
D. all of these apply
22. The final hydrogen acceptor in aerobic respiration is:
A. oxygen B. a cytochrome C. carbon D. pyruvic acid
23. A theory stating that all organisms are composed of cells is called the ______.
24. The numerous internal structures that perform specific functions in the cell are called ______.
25. The basic structure of cell membranes is a bilayer composed of ______.
26. Transport across a membrane which requires energy and is opposite the direction of a concentration gradient is ______.
27. Each pair of sister chromatids is held together by their ______.
28. The first phase of the respiratory cycle in which glucose is converted to pyruvic acid is called ______.
29. According to the law of independent assortment:
A. traits blend B. the inheritance of one gene pair is unaffected by the simultaneous inheritance of other gene pairs on other chromosomes C. all genes on a given chromosome are inherited independently D. traits remain independent in the first generation only
30. A dominant gene is one that:
A. is never expressed when homozygous B. is always expressed when present
C. is expressed in all the offspring when both parents carry it D. is only expressed when heterozygous
31. A phenotype is best described as:
A. the type of genes an organism carries B. the type of gametes an organism produces C. the way an organism expresses the genes it carries D. the number of lethal genes in a genome
32. Alleles are genes that:
A. are linked B. are lethal when homozygous C. occupy corresponding places in homologous chromosomes D. are never heterozygous
33. In a monohybrid cross Tt x Tt, the genotypic ratio of Tt in the offspring will be:
A. 1/4 B. 2/4 C. 3/4 D. 4/4
34. In a dihybrid cross, TtYy x TtYy, the genotypic ratio of TtYy in the offspring will be:
A. 1/16 B. 2/16 C. 3/16 D. 4/16
35. Rough coat (R) is dominant over smooth coat (r) in guinea pigs, and black coat (B) is dominant over white (b). The F1 from a mating of homozygous individuals for rough black and smooth white is mated with a smooth, white guinea pig. What is the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?
A. 1/4 rough black: 1/4 rough white: 1/4 smooth black: 1/4 smooth white
B. 3/4 rough black: 1/4 smooth white
C. 1/4 rough black: 2/4 smooth black: 1/4 smooth white
D. all rough black
36. In the double strand of DNA, adenine is paired with:
A. uracil B. guanine C. thymine D. cytosine
37. A codon encodes an amino acid in DNA. It is composed of ______bases.
A. three B. four C. two D. six
38. Transfer RNA functions in:
A. delivering amino acids to the mRNA – ribosome complex B. synthesizing mRNA C. replicating DNA D. delivering amino acids to DNA
39. The anticodon for GCG is:
A. AUA B. UAU C. CGC D. AGA
40. Alternative forms of the same gene are known as ______.
41. The physical appearance of an organism as opposed to its genetic makeup is referred to as the ______.
42. A cross between an organism of unknown genotype and one that is homozygous recessive is known as a ______cross.
43. RNA and DNA are both built of repeated units called ______.
44. In DNA thymine pairs with ______, and cytosine pairs with ______.
45. The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is ______.
46. The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed by:
A. Darwin and Lyell B. Darwin and Wallace C. Darwin and Malthus
D. Darwin and Lamarck
47. If two populations are separate species, they will be:
A. morphologically distinguishable B. incapable of freely exchanging genes
C. capable of limited hybridization D. geographically allopatric
48. Geographic isolation:
A. is the spatial separation of two populations B. is a requirement for sympatric speciation C. is the same as reproductive isolation D. is a rare event in speciation
49. Which of the following is not one of the observations that led Darwin to propose the theory of natural selection?
A. Organisms have great potential fertility B. Natural populations normally remain constant in size except for minor fluctuations C. Natural resources are limited D. The hereditary process features particulate inheritance
50. Which of the following is not an inference of Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
A. There exists a struggle for existence among members of a population
B. There is a differential survival and reproduction among varying organisms in a population
C. Characteristics that are harmful to survival are often advantageous for reproduction
D. Over many generations, differential survival and reproduction of varying organisms generates new species
51. The concept that acquired characteristics are inherited was proposed by the French zoologist ______.
52. Darwin’s thoughts on evolution were greatly influenced by an essay on populations written by ______.
53. The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed by Charles R. Darwin and ______.
54. A community is made up of:
A. different kinds of living organisms B. living organisms and their nonliving environment C. ecosystems D. only the nonliving environment
55. The producers of deep sea thermal vent communities are:
A. fish B. giant pogonophoran worms C. deep sea kelp D. biomass
56. The vast open ocean is known as the ______zone.
57. The study of the distribution of animals on the earth is called ______.
58. The man who developed the present system of classification was:
A. Aristotle B. Ray C. Linnaeus D. Darwin
59. The correct sequence of classification is:
A. Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
B. Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
C. Phylum, Family, Order, Class, Genus, Species
D. Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus, Species
60. Which of the following distinguishes a phylogenetic tree from a cladogram?
A. it is a branching diagram B. it depicts the nested hierarchy of clades within clades C. synapomorphies are needed to construct it D. its structure denotes real lineages that occurred in the evolutionary past
61. The characters used to construct cladograms come from the study of:
A. comparative morphology B. comparative cytology C. comparative biochemistry D. all of the above
62. A taxon is paraphyletic if it:
A. includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants
B. includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some but not all of its descendants
C. excludes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group
D. none of the above
63. The front or belly side of an animal is:
A. anterior B. sagittal C. ventral D. proximal
64. An enterocoelous animal has:
A. a true coelom B. a pseudocoelom C. no coelom
D. a schizocoelom
65. Flatworms have:
A. radial symmetry B. tube-within-a-tube body plan C. eucoelomate body plan D. none of the above
66. Vertebrates have:
A. bilateral symmetry B. eucoelomate body plan C. tube-within-a-tube body plan D. all of these
67. A taxon containing the most recent common ancestor of a group of organisms and all of its descendants is called ______.
68. In animal symmetry, the term that designates the back side of the animal is ______.
69. In animal symmetry, ______parts are farther from the middle of the body than some point of reference.
70. The ______plane divides an animal into right and left halves.
71. The serial repetition of similar body segments along the longitudinal axis of the body is called ______.
72. The function of the contractile vacuole in protozoa is:
A. water balance B. digestion C. locomotion D. all of these
73. Reproduction in most protozoa is primarily by:
A. conjugation B. asexual cell division C. fusion of gametes
D. parthenogenesis
74. A phytoflagellate that forms spherical colonies is:
A. Euglena B. Trichomonas C. Peranema D. Volvox
75. The protozoan Trypanosoma causes ______in humans.
A. malaria B. amoebic dysentery C. African sleeping disorder
D. birth defects
76. Apicomplexan protozoan:
A. are all endoparasites B. possess an apical complex in certain stages in the life cycle C. have complex life cycles that include sexual and asexual reproduction
D. all of these
77. The vectors of malaria parasites are:
A. tsetse flies B. sandflies C. mosquitoes D. all of these
78. A well-known example of a colonial flagellate is ______.
79. The protozoan phylum that contains only endoparasitic forms is the ______.
80. The genus of the organism causing malaria is ______.
81. Sponges:
A. are primarily sessile marine animals B. lack tissues C. have a unique canal system D. all of these
82. The correct sequence of canal systems in sponges from the simplest to the most complex is:
A. asconoid, syconoid, leuconoid
B. syconoid, asconoid, leuconoid
C. leuconoid, asconoid, syconoid
D. asconoid, leuconoid, syconoid
83. The cells of a sponge that are responsible for water flow and capture of some particles are the:
A. myocytes B. archaeocytes C. choanocytes D. pinacocytes
84. Reproduction in sponges is:
A. asexual by budding B. asexual by gemmules C. sexual D. all of these
85. The minute, needle-like structures that act as a skeletal support system in sponges are called ______.
86. Bath sponges belong to the class ______.
87. Digestion in cnidarians is:
A. intracellular only B. extracellular only C. both extracellular and intracellular D. none of these
88. The class of cnidarians with the most conspicuous medusa stage is:
A. Hydrozoa B. Scyphozoa C. Anthozoa D. Ctenophora
89. Physalia, the Portuguese man-of-war, is a:
A. colonial hydrozoan B. scyphozoan C. hydrocoral D. mid-sixteenth century warship
90. Sea anemones and corals lack:
A. a sexual stage B. an asexual stage C. a polyp stage D. a medusa stage
91. The morphological type adapted to a sedentary or sessile life is the ______, and that adapted for floating or free-swimming existence is the ______.
92. Nematocysts are provided with a trigger-like ______.
93. The structure of the nervous system in cnidarians is referred to as a ______.
94. Water in the gastrovascular cavity serves as a ______skeleton.
95. Corals important in formation of coral reefs have algal cells called ______in their tissues.
96. Some characteristics of flatworms and ribbon worms are:
A. bilateral symmetry, triploblastic, protostomate
B. acoelomate, diploblastic, bilateral symmetry
C. radial symmetry, triploblastic, acoelomate