Loadmaster MQF

General

1.Which of the following items must have the CG marked?

a.Any item measuring 10 feet or longer

b.Any item having a balance point at other than its center

c.Vehicle type cargo with empty/loaded CG as appropriate

d.All of the above

2.When shall wheeled items be marked with individual axle weights?

a.If the weight is equal to or exceeds 1,800 lbs

b.If the weight is equal to or exceeds 2,000 lbs

c.If the weight is equal to or exceeds 3,000 lbs

d.If the weight is equal to or exceeds 3,600 lbs

3.Which of the following will be provided for cargo loads that span more than one pallet and the weight is not separated in terms of weight per pallet?

a.The combined weight and calculated CG

b.The center of balance of each pallet

c.The individual weight of each piece

d.Any of the above

4.When may cargo be on/offloaded with a forklift (NOT using bare tines)?

a.Never, it is prohibited

b.Only through the forward door system

c.Only when knelt

d.If no other means is available

5.When can bare tine forklifts be used when on/off loading of 463L pallets?

a.Never; it is always prohibited

b.Only through the forward door system

c.Only when unknelt

d.If no other means is available

6.When is it permissible to deflate tires to reduce vehicle height?

a.Provided sleep shoring is used

b.Never

c.Only to reduce the ground clearance for loading/off-loading

d.Only when required by special loading instruction in the T.O. 1C-5A-9-2

7.Vehicles/helicopters with a combination of small wheel size and high weight shall not be driven/winched over the ______without using a minimum of ____ inch rolling shoring over the length of the applicable area.

a.Teeter rollers; 1

b.Stowed omni-directional rollers; 1/2

c.Stowed inboard logistics rails; 1/2

d.Tiedown ring pans; 3/4

8.When can a pallet can be used as shoring?

a.For wheeled vehicles only

b.For concentrated cargo only

c.Never

d.Always

9.Which of the following conditions would cause a 463L pallet with top and side nets to be considered a flight safety hazard and unable to maintain restraint requirements?

a.Exposed or deteriorated wood core or extreme delamination

b.Missing hooks or damaged webbing

c.Missing D rings

d.All of the above conditions

10.Which of the following shall top net fastening devices (hooks), not be connected to when using 463L pallets, side nets, and top nets?

a.Side net webbing, pallet tiedown rings, and bottom row of side net rings

b.Small rings of side nets, large rings of side nets, bottom row of side net rings

c.Side net webbing, other top net hooks, small rings of side nets

d.Other top net hooks, pallet tiedown rings, bottom row of top net rings

11.What is the minimum pair of logistic restraint lock mechanisms that shall be operative and engaged for restraint of palletized cargo?

a.Two pairs with two locks inboard and two locks outboard.

b.One pair with one lock inboard and one lock outboard.

c.Two pairs with at least two locks inboard or outboard.

d.One pair with at least one lock inboard or outboard. T.O. 1C-5A-9 4B-9

12.When may tiedown straps be used in lieu of top nets on two and three pallet trains?

a.When gross weight is less than 15,000 lbs

b.When pallet height is less then 45 inches

c.Always

d.Never T.O. 1C-5A-9 4B-9

13.Empty 463L pallets should never be stacked upside down.

a.True

b.False

14.What is the minimum number of chains required to construct a logistics pallet winching bridle?

a.Two

b.Three

c.Four

d.One

15.When shall pallets, single or multiple, be restrained by using the aircraft winch?

a.When on/off loading cargo 15,000 lbs or greater in the unkneeled position

b.When on/offloading cargo 15,000 lbs or greater in the forward knell position

c.When cargo is 15,000 lbs or greater in the aft kneel position

d.Both b and c are correct

16.If a MB-1 tiedown chain were attached to a pallet ring, what would the tiedown angle ratio be multiplied by to determine the effective restraint received?

a.7,500 lbs

b.10,000 lbs

c.30/30 angle ratio values

d.Restraint supplied by type of chain used

17.What is the minimum clearance between a truck-bed or flatbed and the end of the airplane aft ramp or fwd ramp extension when using the aircraft winch?

a.32 inches

b.48 inches

c.24 inches

d.12 inches

18.When can you use a wheel chock to prevent vehicles or other wheeled equipment from rolling down the forward ramp, ramp extension and toes in drive-in position?

a.When vehicle weighs less than 2000 lbs

b.Never

c.Always

d.Only if a winch is hooked up to the vehicle

19.What is the maximum diameter cable that may be used with the aircraft snatch blocks?

a.3/8 inch

b.5/16 inch

c.7/16 inch

d.9/16 inch

20.Who of the following, if any, are required to wear work gloves when using the aircraft winch cable for loading?

a.Only crewmembers when handling the winch

b.Only loading crew members when handling the winch

c.Both loading crew and crewmembers when handling the winch cable

d.Neither loading crew members or crewmembers are required to wear gloves

21.What is the maximum number of broken wires per strand inch a winch cable may have before it is considered unserviceable?

a.Three

b.Four

c.Six

d.Seven

22.What is the maximum number of broken wires per cable inch a cable may have and still be usable?

a.Three

b.Four

c.Six

d.Seven

23.Which of the following is required if the winch cycles rapidly on and off causing a jerking of the cable?

a.Discontinue reeling in and reduce cable load

b.Check all attachment points for security and continue

c.Reduce speed and continue

d.Check for fluid accumulation and call for maintenance

24.What should NOT be done after an electrical power failure has occurred when using the portable heavy-duty winch that is under a load?

a.No restrictions

b.Do not use the emergency crank handle

c.Wait for electrical power to be restored

d.Winch has been written up as unserviceable

25.What may happen to the portable heavy-duty cargo winch if the control pendant IN and OUT buttons are depressed simultaneously?

a.Could result in damage to the winch

b.Winch could reel out uncontrollably

c.Nothing, the winch protection breakers will pop

d.Winch will only reel out

26.What size diameter cable must a snatch block be capable of accepting before using it with the heavy-duty cargo winch?

a.1/2

b.3/8

c.7/16

d.9/16

27.What is the maximum cable pull-off angle allowed when using the portable heavy cargo winch?

a.15 degrees

b.8 degrees to inboard side only

c.15 degrees inboard only

d.8 degrees outboard only

28.What is the rated capacity of the airplane snatch blocks for winching?

a.13,000 lbs

b.15,000 lbs

c.25,000 lbs

d.30,000 lbs

29.What is the combined maximum weight of side-by-side or multiple wheeled vehicle axles loaded between FS 1458 and 1518?

a.25,000 lbs

b.36,000 lbs

c.10,355 lbs

d.20,000 lbs

30.What is the minimum thickness of shoring used on the C-5?

a.1/4 inch

b.1/2 inch

c.3/4 inch

d.1 inch

31.When sleeper shoring is required under a vehicle and the shoring is built-up so that the shoring is snug against the underside of the vehicle, parking shoring:

a.Is not required

b.Is also required

c.May be required

d.Must be calculated

32.Rolling shoring may or may not be required for on/off loading when parking shoring is required?

a.True

b.False

33.A vehicle that requires sleeper shoring also requires parking shoring.

a.True

b.False

34.What is the maximum allowable axle load on the forward and aft ramps?

a.7500 lbs., 40 inch

b.3600 lbs., 40 inch

c.3200 lbs., 20 inch

d.3600 lbs., 20 inch

35.What are the allowable load restrictions on the forward and aft ramp?

a.Two 7500 lb. single pallets

b.Maximum ramp cargo weight of 15,000 lbs

c.3600 lbs. in any 20 length

d.All of the above

36.What is required if maximum overhang ratio is exceeded when either backing or driving a vehicle into the aircraft?

a.No special procedures

b.Waiver from HQ AMC

c.Waiver from Numbered Air Force

d.Special handling procedures

37.When pneumatic tire pressure exceeds ____ PSI and the tire is parked on the inboard logistics rails, shoring shall be used that is a minimum of 1/2 inch thick and 6 inches wide or the width of the tire, whichever is greater.

a.70

b.120

c.100

d.300

38.What is the maximum tire pressure allowed on areas other than the inboard logistics rails?

a.50 psi

b.100 psi

c.150 psi

d.300 psi

39.When pneumatic tire pressure exceeds 100 PSI and the tire is parked on the inboard logistics rails, shoring shall be used that is a minimum of ____ inch thick, and ____ inches wide or the width of the tire, whichever is greater.

a.1/2, 4

b.1/2, 6

c.1, 4

d.1, 6

40.When may cargo be on/off-loaded with either of the AFT MLG's kneeled?

a.Never

b.If the maintenance stabilizer jacks were installed prior to kneeling the individual main landing gear

c.Only if the cargo weight is less than 15,000 lbs

d.Only if you cross kneel the main landing gears

41.What technical order covers the requirements for on/off-loading cargo during refueling operations?

a.T.O. 1C-5-1

b.T.O. 00-25-172

c.T.O. 00-20-5

d.T.O. 1C-5A-9-2

42.When can palletized cargo be winched in the logistic rail system?

a.They can not be manually onloaded.

b.It can be positively determined that the weight of the pallets is the only factor preventing its movement into the rail system.

c.Both a and b.

d.Married pallets shall not be winched into the aircraft logistic rail system.

43.What items of cargo must be unloaded first should a fire occur during on/off-loading operations?

a.Corrosives

b.Explosives

c.Flammable and/or explosives

d.Any hazardous material

44.Which of the following happens when the respective APU fire handle is pulled?

a.Arms the fire extinguisher

b.Shuts down the APU by closing the APU solenoid operated fuel shutoff valve and closes the related APU isolation valve

c.Shuts off the supply of hydraulic fluid to the related ATM-driven hydraulic pump and closes the pump pressure line shutoff valve

d.All of the above

45.Where are the two APU fire extinguisher bottles located?

a.In the lower aft corner of the left aft main landing gear wheel well

b.In the lower fwd corner of the left aft main landing gear wheel well

c.In the lower aft corner of the right aft main landing gear wheel well

d.In the lower fwd corner of the right aft main landing gear wheel well

46.What causes an APU GEN FAIL light to come on?

a.When one of the protective features in the generator has de-energized a relay in the generator control unit, de-energizing the generator and disconnecting it from all busses

b.When the respective generator has had a mechanical failure, which caused the rotor to rub the stator

c.When Voltage and Frequency fluctuates

d.When Voltage overloads the system

47.What causes A GEN OUT light to come on?

a.When one of the protective features in the generator has de-energized a relay in the generator control unit, de-energizing the generator and disconnecting it from all busses

b.When the respective generator has had a mechanical failure, which caused the rotor to rub the stator

c.When Voltage and Frequency fluctuates

d.When Voltage overloads the system

48.What happens during locking or unlocking operations on the forward ramp system when a lock or linkage is fouled or jammed?

a.The locks could be damaged from forcibly being opened

b.The system stalls the actuator

c.The system stalls the lock linkage

d.The K1UT safety circuit is energized

49.What lights come on the pilots and flight engineer annunciator panel during a lamp test of the forward loadmaster door lock status indicator panel?

a.The PRESS DOOR OPEN on the pilot's annunciator panel and the UNPRESS DOOR OPEN on the flight engineer's annunciator panel.

b.The PRESS DOOR OPEN and on the pilot's annunciator panel and the PRESS DOOR OPEN and UNPRESS DOOR OPEN on the flight engineer's annunciator panel.

c.The PRESS DOOR OPEN and UNPRESS DOOR OPEN lights on the pilot's annunciator panel, and the PRESS DOOR OPEN light on the flight engineer's annunciator panel come on.

d.Neither the PRESS DOOR OPEN or the UNPRESS DOOR OPEN light comes on at either panel.

50.When is the BYPASS portion of the door systems NOT LKD/BYPASS lights activated?

a.Locking switch malfunctions

b.Locking switch is out of rig

c.Both a & b are correct

d.Only when on the ground

51.Should a ramp lock pin ball-detent, spring, or other internal part of the pin fail, the pin will fall into the tray in the bottom of the stowage container. This action indicates an unsafe locking pin.

a.True

b.False

52.What is the pressure door uplock emergency release handle used for?

a.Aircrew door operations only

b.Ground maintenance only

c.Aircrew and ground maintenance only

d.None of the above

53.What position on the portable oxygen bottle selector switch would be used for a cabin altitude of 43,000 feet?

a.NORM

b.30M

c.42M

d.EMER

54.How many oxygen recharger outlets are located in the troop compartment?

a.2

b.3

c.4

d.5

55.What position on the portable oxygen bottle selector switch would be selected for a cabin altitude of 31,000 feet?

a."NORM"

b."30M"

c."42M"

d."EMER"

56.Which position(s) on the portable oxygen bottle altitude selector switch provide(s) 100 percent oxygen?

a."NORM"

b."EMERGENCY"

c."30M" and "42M"

d.All the above positions

57.What position on the portable oxygen bottle selector switch is selected for a 29,000-foot cabin altitude?

a."NORM"

b."30M"

c."42M"

d."EMER"

58.At what cabin altitude will the continuous flow oxygen regulators automatically open and oxygen begin to flow?

a.10,000 to 11,500 feet

b.11,500 to 12,500 feet

c.12,000 to 14,500 feet

d.12,500 to 14,000 feet

59.When occupying the bunkroom in-flight and oxygen is not being used, what positions should you set the oxygen regulator levers?

a.Oxygen supply lever to "ON", diluter lever to "100% OXYGEN", emergency toggle lever to "NORMAL"

b.Oxygen supply lever to "ON", diluter lever to "NORMAL", emergency toggle lever to "NORMAL"

c.Oxygen supply lever to "OFF", diluter lever to "100% OXYGEN", emergency toggle lever to "NORMAL"

d.Oxygen supply lever to "OFF", diluter lever to "NORMAL", emergency toggle lever to "NORMAL"

60.Below what cabin altitude will the continuous-flow oxygen system cease to flow?

a.10,000 feet

b.11,500 feet

c.12,500 feet

d.14,000 feet

61.What is the maximum operating altitude for the emergency passenger oxygen system (EPOS)?

a.39,000 ft

b.40,000 ft

c.41,000 ft

d.45,000 ft

62.The cabin altitude test and sensing port on the continuous flow oxygen system regulators should never be covered or plugged.

a.True

b.False

63.Which of the following would be operational if at least one battery is connected to the battery bus?

a.APU EGT indicators

b.APU fire warning system

c.APU fire detection system

d.APU fire extinguishing and isolation system

64.During a battery check, if the battery voltage is less than 22.5 volts, what action should be taken before power is applied to the airplane?

a.Both batteries must be replaced

b.The normal battery must be replaced; the standby battery may be disconnected

c.The battery with the low voltage shall be replaced, or disconnected if a replacement is not available

d.Ensure the charged battery is in the normal position and the battery with the low voltage is in the standby position

65.When removing power from the aircraft and shutting down the APU, what position must the Battery switch be in to prevent complete battery discharge?

a.OFF

b.ON

c.NORM

d.STANDBY

66.How long must you wait before kneeling or unkneeling the aircraft, after selecting OFF on the INS?

a.One minute

b.Two minutes

c.Three minutes

d.Four minutes

67.Which of the following statements concerning aircraft kneeling is FALSE?

a.Do not kneel or unkneel the airplane during alignment of the INS

b.Do not chock the NLG wheels during LVL or FWD kneeling. The NLG wheel may be chocked only during AFT KNEEL

c.Damage may occur as a result of twisting movements on the ballscrews caused when the landing gear is not centered or when side loads are present

d.The airplane should be fully unkneeled from any kneeled condition before going to any other kneel mode

68.During kneeling, if hydraulic pressure falls below 1500 PSI, use the PTUs to pressurize the system.

a.True

b.False

69.What is the minimum hydraulic pressure for kneeling?

a.3000 PSI

b.2800 PSI

c.1500 PSI

d.1000 PSI

70.What must be done if hydraulic pressure falls below 1500 PSI during kneeling?

a.Attempt to unkneel the aircraft using the PTUs and do not attempt to re-kneel until the problem has been solved

b.Use the PTUs to supply hydraulic pressure to the affected system

c.Immediately stop the kneeling

d.None of the above

71.In which of the following positions should the INS' NOT be in during kneeling?

a.ALIGN

b.Off

c.NAV

d.STBY

72.Do not attempt to kneel the airplane unless both AFT MLG FREE lights are off.

a.True

b.False

73.Do not ______the airplane if the NLG strut extension is not on the green side of the torque link placard.

a.Forward kneel

b.Level kneel

c.Forward or level kneel

d.Kneel

74.The nose landing gear strut limiter must be used for

a.Aft kneel

b.Level kneel

c.All kneeling modes

d.Forward kneel

75.For loading operations, what spacing should be maintained between the chock and the aircraft MLG tires?

a.3 inches

b.7 inches

c.15 inches

d.None, the chocks should be placed against the tire for loading

76.During kneeling, if a MLG stops at an intermediate position:

a.PTU to the MLG's associated hydraulic system to increase hydraulic pressure to the faulty gear.

b.Individually kneel the faulty gear while continuing with the kneeling operation.

c.Stop the kneeling operation by placing the Kneel Command switch to OFF