Ohio HazMat and WMD Technician
Final Test
1. Which of the following is part of OSHA’s requirements for your emergency response plan?
a. Site security
b. Lines of authority
c. Training requirements
d. All of the above are requirements found in 29CFR1910.120(q)(2)
2. Your local jurisdictions ability to respond is part of the…?
a. Local ERP
b. NCP
c. SERC
d. GOG
3. The alarm level for an oxygen deficient atmosphere is…?
a. 20.9%
b. 15%
c. 19.5%
d. 23.5%
4. The alarm level for the IDLH level of a flammable vapor or gas is…?
a. 10% of the product in the air
b. 10% of the products L.E.L
c. 10% of the products U.E.L.
d. 10% of the products flash point
5. When in contact with acidic vapors pH paper turns…?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Gray
d. Red
6. Low oxygen levels can cause…?
a. Low oxygen readings on an air monitor
b. Incorrect readings on an L.E.L. sensor
c. High CO readings
d. Both a and b are correct
7. In order for a PID to detect a substance its lamps I.P. must be…?
a. More then the products I.P.
b. Less then the products I.P.
c. The same as a products I.P.
d. 10.7 e.v.
8. M8 and M9 detect?
a. Products of combustion
b. Chemical warfare agents
c. Alpha and Beta only
d. Hydrocarbons only
9. The position responsible for the HazMat branch is…?
a. HazMat Branch Officer
b. HazMat Section Leader
c. HazMat Group Supervisor
d. HazMat Support Leader
10. 29 CFR 1910.120(q) states that there are three things the Safety Officer should do when an activity is judged to be IDLH. They are…?
a. Stop, drop and roll
b. Terminate, stop and cease the activity
c. Alter, suspend or terminate the activity
d. First notify the I.C.
11. The position responsible for gathering information on the chemical properties of a product is the…?
a. Information Officer
b. Research Officer
c. Delta Team Leader
d. HazMat Safety Officer
12. What are the two major types of respiratory protection?
a. Gas mask and SCBA
b. APR and SAR
c. SCBA and in-line air
d. SCUBA and SCBA
13. Which of the following is an advantage of using an SCBA?
a. Unlimited air supply
b. Lighter then in-line air
c. Higher protection level then an APR
d. Fire safety
14. Which of the following is one of the seven items that must be known before you wear an APR?
a. Oxygen content of the atmosphere
b. Name of chemical
c. Cartridge compatibility
d. All of the above are one of the seven
15. Break-thru time measures...?
a. Permeation
b. Degradation
c. Penetration
d. Detoxification
16. If the chemical is capable of actually dissolving the chemical suit…this is known as?
a. Permeation
b. Degradation
c. Penetration
d. Detoxification
17. Dry hot skin could be a sign for?
a. The heartbreak of psoriasis
b. Heat cramps
c. toxemia
d. Heat Stroke
18. Glove compatibility is the direct responsibility of…?
a. Incident Command
b. Lead Tender Timer
c. Decon Team Leader
d. Research Officer
19. Which of the below is not one of the three items of information that must be assessed on a HazMat incident?
a. Containers
b. Products
c. Environment
d. Cost
20. A container that holds less then 119 gallons is considered…?
a. A bulk container
b. A pressure container
c. A non-bulk container
d. A tanker
21. Which of the following is not one of the container stressors?
a. Construction
b. Thermal
c. Chemical
d. Mechanical
22. The four types of release events for a container breach are…?
a. Spills, Leaks, Drips and Runs
b. Runs, Drips, Spills and Violent Rupture
c. Detonation, Violent Rupture, Rapid Relief and Spills and Leaks
d. Cracks, Runs, Detonation and Leaks
23. A Cloud, Cone, Plume and/or Stream are examples of the four different…?
a. Product types
b. Dispersion Patterns
c. Gas releases
d. Cameo plot models
24. Which one of the below is not one of the four basic areas of a release into the environment?
a. Into a room
b. Onto the Ground
c. Into the air
d. Into the water
25. An MC312 is…?
a. A corrosive drum
b. A corrosive tank car
c. A flammable liquid tank car
d. A bulk tote
26. The zone in which the command post should be set-up is..?
a. The Warm Zone
b. The Twilight Zone
c. The Cold Zone
d. The Hot Zone
27. Keeping the product inside its original container is called?
a. Confinement
b. Containment
c. Control
d. Congestion
28. An overflow dam can be used to stop…?
a. miscible liquids
b. in-miscible liquids with a density of less then 1
c. in-miscible liquids with a density of more then 1
d. Solids
29. Plugging a leaking pressure relief device is always a good idea?
a. True
b. False
c. True, if it can be done quickly
30. The best solution for emergency decon is…?
a. Alcohol
b. Consult the MSDS of the chemical
c. Water
d. Bleach
31. The best solution for technical decon is…?
a. Alcohol
b. Consult the MSDS of the chemical
c. Soap and water
d. Bleach
32. Neutralization may be dangerous to use on suits because…?
a. It creates heat
b. It creates pressure
c. It may not work
d. It creates water
33. Which of the following is a surfactant?
a. Soap
b. Chlorine
c. Alcohol
d. Ammonia
34. The termination procedure that includes discussion of the chemicals involved and their hazards is…?
a. Debrief
b. Critique
c. After action procedures
35. The termination procedure that includes reporting requirements, documentation and equipment replacement is…?
a. Debrief
b. Critique
c. After action procedures
36. The termination procedure that includes an honest look at how things might go better the next time is?
a. Debrief
b. Critique
c. After action procedures
37. Flp, LEL, UEL and SADT are terms of…?
a. Corrosiveness
b. Flammability
c. Chemical properties
d. Physical properties
38. The weight of a product compared to water is its…?
a. Vapor density
b. pH
c. Specific Gravity
d. Vapor pressure
39. A vesicant is…?
a. A nerve agent
b. An incapacitating agent
c. An explosive
d. A blister agent
40. Water’s vapor pressure at room temperature is…?
a. 14.6 psi
b. 25 mmHg
c. 760 mmHg
d. 1 Bar
41. Persistence means…?
a. Burns readily
b. Self igniting
c. Dangerous when wet
d. Resists evaporation
42. Which of the following is a halogenated hydrocarbon?
a. Methyl alcohol
b. Acetone
c. Chloro-difluoromethane
d. Di hydrogen monoxide
43. Which of the following is an aromatic hydrocarbon?
a. Hydrogen chloride
b. Chlorine
c. Benzene
d. Acetic acid
44. Miscibility is another word for?
a. Solubility
b. insolubility
c. reactive
d. concentration
45. Based on statistics by the FBI, which of the following is the weapon of choice for terrorist criminals?
a. Chemical weapons
b. Explosives
c. Biological dispersion devices
d. Dirty bombs
46. Target analysis is the examination of potential targets to determine which one would have the most desirable effect by terrorists or criminals
a. True
b. False
47. Basic Life Support consists of a number of life-saving techniques focused on:
a. Bleeding, Broken bones and Eating
b. Breathing, Bleeding and Drinking
c. Airway, Bleeding and Ambulatory
d. Airway, Bleeding and Circulation
48. During the Hazard Elimination phase after the emergency is over, there is no need to placard the materials being transported
a. True
b. False
49. Which of the four below is not a part of the plume making suite?
a. CAMEO
b. MAPALOT
c. ALOHA
d. MARPLOT
50. “Physical Evidence” is any tangible object that establishes that a crime has been commited.
a. True
b. False