PHR Certification Practice Test
PHR Study Group
November 14, 2002
1The four stages in the life cycles of a business are:
a Recruiting, hiring, promotion, evaluation
b Introduction, growth, maturity, decline
c Job analysis, job design, description, job evaluation
d Planning, implementing, evaluating, revision
2The job characteristics model includes:
a Implementation, attitude surveys, responses, feedback
b Motivation factors and incentives
c Skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback
d Job analysis, task significance, feedback
3Employers must consider which one of the following geographic and competitive concerns in making HR plans?
a Employee resistance to geographic relocation
b Organizational restructuring
c Balancing work and family
d Education and employment shifts
4Human resource management is conducted to achieve______goals.
a Management
b Supervisory
c Individual
D Organizational
E Individual and Organizational
5Which is an HR practice typical of an organization that can be defined as “prospector”?
a Promote from within
b External staffing
c Less training
d Extensive training
e b and c
6In the future, HR managers will have to deal with all of the following workforce changes, except.
a A more racially diverse workforce
b A skills shortfall among workers
c An abundance of entry level workers
d An older workforce
7All of the following could be considered steps in forecasting, except:
a Understanding external conditions
b Projecting future staffing requirements
c Projecting the supply of labor
d A job analysis
8What is a cooperative form of doing business that relies on the talents and capabilities of both labor and management to continually improve quality and productivity?
a Scientific management
b Total quality management
c Continuous learning
d Trickle-down management
9The process of analyzing and identifying the need for availability of human resources so that the organization can meet its objectives is known as:
a Strategic Planning
b SWOT Analysis
c Human Resource Planning
d Organization Planning
10Development of a business strategy includes:
a External scan
b Internal scan
c Employee dislikes
d A and B
11A unique capability in the organization that creates high value and that differentiates the organization from its competition:
a SWOT
b Organizational culture
c Core competency
d None of the above
12What organization/industry Life-cycle is high risk and entrepreneurial spirited:
a Shakeouts
b Embryonic
c Growth
d None of the above
13What is the primary purpose of an HR audit?
a To measure turnover.
b To evaluate the effectiveness of an organization.
c To compare results to industry standards.
d None of the above.
14In an organizational structure, what is centralization?
a The degree to which decision-making authority is restricted to higher levels of management.
b The degree to which decision-making authority is given to lower levels in an organization’s hierarchy.
c The hierarchical division of labor that distributes formal authority and established how critical decisions will be made.
d A combination of A and C.
15What three categories is organization development divided into?
a Interpersonal, personal, executive.
b Interpersonal, technological, structural.
c Technological, specializations, interpersonal
d Processes, structural, groupings.
16In general, organizational development focuses on change. Which of the following are common characteristics of change?
a Organizational change moves away form the familiar.
b People resist having change imposed on them.
c People see change as a loss of something.
d All of the above.
17What are line units?
a Work groups that perform specialized services for the company (example: accounting).
b Work groups that assist the specialized service departments.
c Work groups that conduct the major business of the organization (example: production workers).
d Work groups that assist the employee’s who perform the major business of the organization.
18According to the DOL (Dept. of Labor), which of the following is not an important characteristic of a profession?
a Research
b Credentialing
c Opportunity for advancement
d Code of ethics
19In the strategic HR planning process, which of the following should be completed first?
a Define the organizational mission
b Scan the environment
c Forecast internal HR supply and demand
d Complete a human resource inventory
20What is the most important step of setting up an HRIS (human resource information system)?
a Prepare a request for proposal.
b Analyze needs
c Select a system
d Implement the system
21Which of the following is an example of when an employee is interviewed from each level? (Line managers, managers, and hourly employee).
a Vertical sensing
b Horizontal sensing
c Team building
d Confrontation meetings
22The three phases of training are:
a Needs assessment, implementation, evaluation
b Job analysis, surveying trainees, evaluation
c Commitment from upper management, needs assessment, evaluation
d Approach, emphasis, presentation
23The three learning domains that influence or change behavior are:
a Identification, development, education
b Cooperation, sharing, evaluating
c Preparing, implementing, evaluating
d Skills, knowledge, attitude
24A training technique that involves transferring trainees to different jobs to broaden their focus and to increase their knowledge is:
a Job rotation
b Job-instruction training
c Imitative learning
d Computer-assisted instruction
25Which is not one of the six levels of learning?
a Knowledge
b Application
c Analysis
d Apprenticeship
26Which is not one of the four criteria for evaluating training programs?
a Behavior
b Synthesis
c Reactions
d Learning
27Which of the following job design practices broadens the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed?
a Job enrichment
b Division of labor
c Job rotation
d Job enlargement
28Direct costs to an employer include:
a Costs of operating a program
b Costs for operating the entire department
c Costs for operating a unit
d Costs for operating a division
29Which of the following is not a type of training needs analyses?
a Task analyses
b Organizational analyses
c Operations analyses
d Individual analyses
30Common forms of behaviorally experienced training include all of the following except:
a Diversity training
b In-basket training
c Apprenticeship
d Case studies/incidents
e Business games
31Which of the following is not one of the four strategies used in behavior modification approach?
a Behavior modeling
b Positive reinforcement
c Negative reinforcement
d Punishment
e Extinction
32What assesses the impact of physical and environmental on employee performance, which means special notice from management may work to increase motivation?
a Group dynamics
b Laboratory training
c Hawthorne studies
d Need for achievement
33All of the following are types of a training needs analysis, except:
a Organizational analysis
b Financial analysis
c Task analysis
d Individual analysis
34The performance of job-related tasks and duties by trainees during training is known as:
a Spaced Practice
b Active Practice
c Massed Practice
d Training Practice
35The performance of all of the practical at once is known as:
a Active Practice
b Training Practice
c Massed Practice
d Spaced Practice
36What does the acronym KSA represent:
a Knowledge, skill, ability
b Knowledge, social, ability
c Knowledge, skills, accountability
d None of the above
37Rating all employees in a narrow band in the middle of the rating scale refers to what error:
a Rater bias
b Recently effect
c Strictness
d Central tendency
38An error that occurs when a raters values or prejudices distort the rating:
a Central tendency
b Leniency
c Raters bias
d None of above
39What do all four phases of the learning process have in common?
a Reaction
b Questioning
c Results
d Behavior
40Which of the following correctly defines training?
a Skills that apply to an employees current job
b Preparation of the employee for future responsibility
c A generalized, individual learning experience
d An attempt to modify behavior.
41A job analysis is:
a Part of an Affirmative Action Plan
b Produces a job description or a job specification
c Required by the EEOC
d Produced by a job description or a job specification
42A validity study, either predictive or concurrent, in which the predictor data are statistically correlated with the criteria of performance:
a Criterion-related validity
b Content validity
c Concurrent validity
d Construct validity
43Sex discrimination, sexual harassment, racial/ethic discrimination, and age discrimination are all:
a Offenses for which employers may be sanctioned under the Taft-Hartley Act
b Examples of employment discrimination
c Violations of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor
d Policies required to be included in an employer personnel policy and procedure manual
44A job analysis includes:
a Obligations to perform certain tasks
b A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions
c A systematic way to gather and analyze information about the content and the human requirements of jobs, and the context in which jobs are performed
d A larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual
45Which of the following is an issue addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
a Race norming
b International employees
c Seniority system
d Consent decrees
e All of the above
46The 4/5ths rule states that:
a Discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market.
b Discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
c Discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market.
d Less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
47An index number giving the relationship between a predictor and a criterion variable is:
a Correlation coefficient
b Concurrent validity
c Content validity
d Predictive validity
48The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:
a Age
b Disability
c Gender
d National origin
49A manager always hires young women as receptionists. This is an example of:
a Intentional discrimination
b Disparate treatment
C Disparate impact
d sexual harassment
50A situation that exists when protected-class members are treated differently from others is known as:
a Disparate Impact
b BFOQ
c Business Necessity
d Disparate Treatment
51What type of rule states that discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the groups representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group?
a 3/4ths rule
b 5/6ths rule
c 1/4ths rule
d 4/5ths rule
52An employee who is a citizen of one country, working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in a third country:
a Third country national
b Host country national
c Expatriate
d None of the above
53Which prohibits discrimination in employment on basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin:
a Executive Order 11246
b Executive Order 11478
c Civil Right Act of 1991
d Civil Rights Act of 1964
54Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits which of the following in the workplace?
a Discrimination or segregation based on race, color, national origin, religion, or gender.
b Discrimination based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related conditions.
c Sexual harassment.
d All of the above.
55Which of the following are exceptions to the definition of discrimination in the workplace?
a Work-related requirements and BFOQ’s.
b Seniority systems.
c Preferential quota systems
d All of the above.
56What is disparate treatment?
a When protected groups are intentionally treated differently from other employees.
b Employees who are evaluated by different standards.
c Favoritism based on a person’s hair color.
d A and B.
57Individuals can prove a prima facia case of disparate treatment if they can demonstrate that they:
a Belong to a minority group or are in a protected class.
b Applied for a job for which the employer was seeking applicants.
c Were rejected, despite being qualified.
d Were rejected and the employer kept looking for people with their qualifications.
e All of the above.
58What does the EEO Program require that employers do?
a Keep employee medical files separate from employee personal files.
b Maintain detailed records on their work force (including applicant flow).
c Adjust staffing policies to fit demographic needs.
d B and C.
59What is an affirmative action program?
a When an employer provides a mentoring program for minorities.
b A program in which employers identify conspicuous imbalances in their workforce , and take positive steps to correct under representation of protected groups.
c An effort by the employer to donate money to inner-city schools.
d A program in which the employers provides tuition reimbursements for their minority employees.
60According to the ADA, the essential job functions in a job description must be listed
a In order of importance
b In order of time spent on the task.
c In alphabetical order
d In no order at all, the ADA requires no particular order.
61Which of the following is an example of listing all employees from highest to lowest in performance?
a Forced distribution
b Paired Comparison
c Ranking
d Structuring
62Assuming no willful violation, what is the statute of limitations for recovery of back pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act?
a Two years
b Three years
c Four years
d Five years
63Which law regulates minimum wages, work hours for children and overtime compensation?
a Norris LaGuardia Act
b Taft Hartley Act
c Fair Labor Standards Act
d Wage Discrimination Act
64Which document Identifies and Gives the right to work to an individual?
a U.S. passport
b Government I.D.
c Social Security Card
d U.S. Birth Certificate
65The FLSA provides for unpaid rest breaks if the break is_____ minutes or over?
a 15
b 20
c 25
d 30
66If the federal minimum wage is $ 5.15 an hour, but the state you live in pays $5.50 an hour. What is the minimum wage that you follow?
a $ 5.15
b $ 5.25
c $ 5.50
d You are free to decide.
67If an employee terminates their employment, how long is the employer required to make insurance under COBRA available to the employee?
a 18 months
b 24 months
c 12 months
d 16 months
68If a trainer develops a training program for their employer, who owns the copyright to it?
a The person who prints it.
b The trainer who wrote it.
c The trainer and the employer.
d The employer of the trainer who wrote it.
69Which one is not a characteristic of an independent contractor?
a They have a continuous relationship with the employer
b Working off site
c Flexibility to set their own work schedules
d Furnish their own tools and training.
70The Railway Labor Act covers which of the following employees?
a Railroad employees only
b Railroad employees and trucking employees
c Railroad employees and airline employees
d Railroad employees and maritime employees
71A closed shop is a shop that
a Employers refuse to hire employees who are members of a union.
b Unions require employees to be union members at the time of hiring
c Employers establish company-sponsored unions
d Is the most frequent type of union environment in the US
72The OSHA “general duty clause” means:
a That the employer must maintain a safe work environment where no standards have been established.
b The employer has the right to choose what OSHA regulations to follow as long as they use good judgment.
c The employer must establish more strict health and safety guidelines than established by OSHA.
d The employer has the option of following state health and safety regulations or OSHA standards.
73What is the minimum number of employees a company must have, which requires OSHA record keeping?
a 25
b 10
c 11
d 32
74Which situation has the highest priority for an OSHA inspection?
a An employee complaint of extremely long hours at work.
b An employee that is exposed to loud noises.
c A situation that causes 7 or more employees to be hospitalized.
d An employee who complains about not enough lighting at their workstation.
75What is the maximum penalty for a willful or repeat OSHA violation?
a Up to $100,000 for each violation.
b Up to $15,000 for each violation.
c Up to $70,000 for each violation.
d Up to $ 60,000 for each violation.
76What is the best way to avoid negligent hiring charges?
a To check all references
b Use psychological testing on applicants
c Require drug testing
d Use disclaimers
77A job description should include the following except?
a Essential functions of the job.
b Who the position reports to.
c The person who last held that job.
d Minimum qualifications for that position.
78A good MBO has all of the following except:
a Obtainable goals and objectives
b Goals established by boss or supervisor
c Periodic review of objectives
d Goals are measurable
79Characteristics of a legally defendable performance evaluation include:
a Equitable treatment of all employees
b Formal evaluation criteria that limit subjective responses
c Evidence that might infer discrimination
d A review process that prevents one manager form over influencing an employer’s career.
80In the action plan step of the performance management process, all take place except:
a The employee agrees with everything said on the evaluation
b Specific objectives are set for the next evaluation period
c A plan is developed on how the employee will meet new objectives
d Discuss how follow up will take place
81Quid pro qou means:
a Hostile work environment
b This for that
c Reasonable person
d Whistle blowing
82Employers should respond to sexual harassment complaints with which of the following:
a Policy, communications and training, plus investigation and action
b Investigation, discipline procedures, and written policies
c Reprimand and dismissal
d Sympathy for the victim
83A type of interview that relies on a careful job analysis to identify the critical job requirements for each position. The interview questions focus on what the person has done in previous situations relative to the job requirements.
a Situational interview
b Targeted-selection interview
c Panel interview
d Nondirective interview
84Which pre-employment measure could a company use to screen candidates for employment who might pose a security risk to the organization?
a Polygraph test
b Drug test using a blood test
c Drug test using a urinalysis test
d Background check with the candidate’s permission
85The purpose of EEO laws is
a To see what can be done about “glass ceiling” concerns
b To counterbalance what the Congress felt was a too “employer friendly” attitude by the Supreme Court
c To notify age discrimination complainants that the agency is terminating action on their cases and the complainants are then free to file civil suits
d To protect individuals who share certain characteristics such as race, age, and gender
86Content validity refers to
a Non-statistical approach using a work sample as a test that identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for the job being filled by a particular candidate
b Validity showing a relationship between an abstract characteristic and job performance
c Validity measured when test results of applicants are compared with subsequent performance
d The extension of the validity of tests to different groups, similar jobs, or other organizations
87A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions is referred to as:
a Job
b Task
c Position
d Duty