Chapter 1

The Scope and Methods of Developmental Psychology

1What does the term “maturation” refer to?

aDevelopment due to age.

bDevelopment due to education.

cDevelopment due to social convention.

dDevelopment in adolescence.

eDevelopment due to genes.

2Development is reflected by a continuous growth function in which of the following world views?

aEconomic.

bMechanistic.

cConstructivistic.

dFolk psychology.

eOrganismic.

3Who formulated a stage theory of development?

aSkinner.

bBlakemore.

cLashley.

dPiaget.

eSiegler.

4Which of the following can produce a population bias in a longitudinal study?

aBetween-person differences.

bWithin-person differences.

cSelective survivorship.

dAge-related differences.

eA low drop-out rate.

5Which experimental design can help researchers decide whether longitudinal and cross-sectional results agree?

aSequential.

bInteractional.

cBlock design.

dRepeated measures.

eCounterbalanced design.

6Who published a baby biography of his son William Erasmus in 1877?

aPiaget.

bVygotsky.

cWesley.

dThurstone.

eDarwin.

7Which of the following is not a weakness of the baby biography research method?

aThey are insensitive to subtle changes in behavior.

bThey can overgeneralize results.

cThey can be biased by a prior theoretical stance.

dAnecdotal evidence given is retrospective.

eThere is often a small sample size.

8Which of the following methods is a combination of observation and loosely structured experimentation?

aClinical method.

bEvent sampling.

cTime sampling.

dBaby biography.

eContinuous sampling.

9Who is famous for using a clinical method in studying early development?

aBlakemore.

bPiaget.

cMichotte.

dDeLoache.

eZelazo.

10In an experimental design, the behavior being measured is the:

aIndependent variable.

bDependent variable.

cControl.

dCausal factor.

eMethod.

11Which of the following criteria would not be included in a test of infant development (under 2 years)?

aCan the infant stand alone?

bCan the infant build a tower of five bricks?

cCan the infant find an occluded object?

dCan the infant state why 2 or 3 words are similar in meaning?

eCan the infant crawl?

12Which correlation coefficient indicates that two variables are entirely unrelated?

a+1.0.

b+0.5.

c0.

d–0.5.

e–1.0.

13An example of a concurrent correlational study is a measurement of the relationship between:

aProblem-solving at 9 months and IQ at 3 years.

bThe sensitivity of the mother at birth and the attachment behavior of the infant at 2 years.

cInfant temperament at 2 months and attachment behavior at 2 years.

dEnglish and math ability at 11 years of age.

eInfant posture at 8 months, and the age at which infants begin to crawl.

14A good way of graphing a correlation is:

aA horizontal bar chart.

bA vertical bar chart.

cA histogram.

dA scattergram.

eA box plot.

15A reason for choosing an observational method rather than an experiment is:

aExperiments often lack ecological validity.

bExperiments cannot test hypotheses.

cExperiments cannot control extraneous variables.

dExperiments do not provide a quantitative measure of behavior.

eExperiments must have a control group.

16“Testable suppositions about the nature of reality” are:

aTheories of relativity.

bHypotheses.

cInventions.

dScientific proof.

eIQ tests.

17Which of the following is an example of an ability that decreases with age?

aReaching precision.

bIntelligence.

cPhonemic discrimination.

dSpeech production.

eMathematical skill.

18“The auditory localization response diminishes or disappears at around 6 weeks of age, and reappears again at around 4 months of age.” This is an example of:

aA decreasing continuous function.

bAn increasing continuous function.

cA U-shaped function.

dA discontinuous function.

eAn inverted U-shaped function.

19Why might cross-sectional and longitudinal studies of intellectual development yield different developmental functions?

aDue to experimenter bias.

bDue to the discontinuous nature of longitudinal experiments.

cDue to the unecological nature of longitudinal experiments.

dDue to the small sample size in cross-sectional experiments.

eDue to cohort differences in cultural experiences.

20What does IQ stand for?

aIntelligence Quality.

bIntelligence Quantity.

cIntelligence Quotient.

dIntelligence Quiz.

eIntelligence and Quickness.

CHAPTER 2

Theories and Issues in Child Development.

1Which of the following might be the focus of a “major” theory, as opposed to a “minor” theory?

aEye-movement development.

bCognitive development.

cObject permanence development.

dDevelopment of the pincer grasp.

eSpelling development.

2What kind of theory of motor development did Gesell subscribe to?

aDynamic systems.

bNatural.

cStatic systems.

dMaturational.

eEcological.

3The progression of motor development from head to foot along the length of the body is termed:

aProximodistal.

bDistoproximal.

cHeadofootal.

dCephalocaudal.

eCorticometatarsal.

4Dynamic systems theory considers motor development to be the result of a dynamic and continual interaction of:

aThree different types of microgenetic organisms.

b(i) Nervous system development and (ii) the physical capabilities of the body.

c(i) Nervous system development and (ii) environmental constraints and support.

d(i) Nervous system development, (ii) the physical capabilities of the body, and (iii) environmental constraints and support.

e(i) Nervous system development and (ii) the temperament of the infant.

5Which of the following terms best describes the processes of assimilation and accommodation which Piaget suggested were responsible for the adaptation of cognitive schemas in development?

aFunctional variants.

bFunctional invariants.

cInvariant schemas.

dVariant schemas.

eHeuristic perceptrons.

6Which of Piaget’s stages of development is situated in adolescence?

aFormal operations.

bSpecial operations.

cPreoperational period.

dSensorimotor period.

eConcrete operations.

7What does the term “animistic thinking” mean?

aLively and fast mental processes.

bNegative thoughts about somebody else.

cAttribution of lifelike qualities to objects.

dLogical thought processes.

eDifficulty with seeing things from another perspective.

8At which of Piaget’s stages do children first learn to conserve number?

aFormal operations.

bSpecial operations.

cPreoperational period.

dSensorimotor period.

eConcrete operations.

9Who was the first person to provide a summary of Piaget’s theory in English?

aSkinner.

bFlavell.

cThelen.

dBowlby.

eLorenz.

10Which theoretical approach uses computers to simulate neural networks?

aPsychodynamics.

bConstructivism.

cDeconstructivism.

dDynamical systems.

eConnectionism.

11Which of these most accurately defines the “zone of proximal development”?

aProblems and ideas well within the child’s ability to understand independently.

bLearning in the company of peers.

cThe worst place for children to develop understanding of a given problem or idea.

dProblems and ideas that the child has only recently mastered and can now understand independently.

eProblems and ideas of sufficient difficulty for the child to prevent independent understanding.

12Which of the following terms defines learning that does not involve observable behavioral reinforcement?

aClassical conditioning.

bOperant conditioning.

cObservational learning.

dNeoclassical conditioning.

eNeo-gothic conditioning.

13Albert Bandura is responsible for:

aSocial connectionism.

bSocial learning theory.

cEthological learning theory.

dSociogenetic theory.

eGenetic learning theory.

14Who were John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth?

aThe first connectionist modelers.

bSocial learning theorists.

cThe parents of Bowlby the British psychoanalyst.

dThe zoologists who laid the foundations of the ethological approach to development.

eAttachment theorists.

15According to Bowlby, the need for attachment is:

aA primary drive.

bA secondary drive.

cA tertiary drive.

dA result of the need for sustenance.

eAn artifact of the strange situation.

16Which of the following Freudian personality structures is most analogous to a conscience?

aId.

bEgid.

cSuperid.

dEgo.

eSuperego.

17At which of Freud’s psychosexual stages does the Oedipus complex take place?

aOral.

bAnal.

cPhallic.

dLatency.

eGenital.

18Who was the leading proponent of humanistic theory?

aSigmund Freud.

bAnna Freud.

cAbraham Maslow.

dErik Erikson.

eLawrence Kohlberg.

19In humanistic theory, self-actualization is defined as:

aThe desire to fulfill sexual needs.

bThe inner need or desire to fulfill others’ expectations of oneself.

cThe desire of others to match their potentials with one’s own.

dThe inner need or desire to fulfill one’s potential.

eThe need to be alone with one’s thoughts.

20Which of the following theoretical positions sees gender development as the child being reinforced for what others see as gender-appropriate behavior?

aPsychoanalytic.

bBiological determinant.

cSocial learning.

dOperant conditioning.

eCognitive.

Chapter 3

The Nature–Nurture Issue

1Which of the following would not be used to explain differences in cognitive abilities between people?

aNourishment.

bNerve conduction velocity.

cManual dexterity.

dMotivation.

eSchooling.

2What is the term used to refer to the variation of human traits within a population?

aSchizophrenia.

bAcademic performance.

cIQ.

dIndividual differences.

eMotivation.

3Which of the following scientific fields does not conduct investigation into sources of variability in behavior traits?

aDevelopmental psychology.

bOccupational psychology.

cMolecular genetics.

dPsychiatric genetics.

eDifferential psychology.

4Which of the following scientists defined the nature–nurture debate as a calculation of the relative contributions of heredity and the environment?

aHelmholtz.

bLikert.

cGalton.

dThurstone.

eHering.

5Which of the following is an accurate definition of an individual’s cognitive genotype?

aAn unobservable, latent characteristic that manifests itself in the cognitive phenotype.

bAn observable, measurable characteristic, determined in part by the cognitive phenotype.

cAn observable, unmeasurable characteristic that manifests itself in the schizotype.

dAn unobservable, latent characteristic, determined entirely by the cognitive phenotype.

eAn observable, measurable characteristic, determined entirely by the phenotype.

6What are the assumptions made when using the covariance of traits in monozygotic and dizygotic twins (reared together) to determine the components of phenotypic variance?

aTwins share the same environment, and dizygotic twins share 100% of their genes while monozygotic twins share 50%.

bTwins are subjected to different environments, and dizygotic twins share 100% of their genes while monozygotic twins share 50%.

cTwins are subjected to different environments, and both dizygotic and monozygotic twins share 50% of their genes.

dTwins share the same environment, and dizygotic twins share 50% of their genes while monozygotic twins share 100%.

eTwins are subjected to different environments, and dizygotic twins share 50% of their genes while monozygotic twins share 100%.

7Which of the following is the name given to the single copy of a gene pair inherited from one parent?

aChromosome.

bProtein.

cAllele.

dDNA.

eTemplate.

8What is epistasis?

aInteractions within a gene.

bInteractions between genes.

cInteractions between chromosomes.

dAllele dominance.

eInteractions of nuclei within cells.

9Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental effect?

aPrenatal influenza.

bLow socioeconomic status.

cParenting style.

dClimate.

eNoisy neighbors.

10According to Scarr and McCartney’s (1983) hypothesis, how does the importance of the different types of gene–environment correlation change over the course of development?

aWeak increases, evocative remains the same, strong decreases.

bStrong increases, evocative remains the same, weak decreases.

cPassive increases, strong increases, weak decreases, active decreases.

dActive increases, evocative remains the same, passive decreases.

ePassive increases, evocative remains the same, active decreases.

11The ways in which people respond to children are influenced by the children’s own, genetically determined, characteristics. This is an example of which sort of gene–environment correlation?

aNeutral.

bNegative.

cEvocative.

dPassive.

eActive.

12From the following, choose the best definition of heritability.

aAn estimate of the variation of a trait in a population, accountable for by genetic differences in members of that population.

bAn estimate of the mean score for a trait in a population, given a particular genetic inheritance.

cAn estimate of the mean score for a trait in a population, given particular environmental constraints.

dAn estimate of the variation of a trait in an individual, given particular environmental constraints.

eAn estimate of the variation of a trait in a population, given particular environmental constraints.

13Why are different genetic mechanisms thought to be involved in the manifestation of IQ variation at either pole of the spectrum of ability?

aHigh- and low-ability participants belong to different socioeconomic groups.

bDifferences in IQ heritability decrease as the sample increases in age.

cDifferences in IQ heritability increase as the sample increases in age.

dIQ individual differences disappear as the sample increases in age.

eThere is a difference in the heritability of IQ between high- and low-ability subjects.

14How does the heritability of intelligence vary across the life span?

aIt remains constant at 60%.

bEarly childhood – 80%, early adulthood – 60%, later life – 40%.

cEarly childhood – 40%, early adulthood – 80%, later life – 60%.

dEarly childhood – 40%, early adulthood – 60%, later life – 80%.

eEarly childhood – 80%, later life – 10%.

15Chipuer, Rovine, and Plomin’s (1990) model-fitting global analysis of family, twin, and adoption studies provides an estimate of heritability that is:

a23–24%.

b40–41%.

c50–51%.

d76–77%.

e95–96%.

16Why are the findings of behavior-genetic studies concerning intelligence limited in their generalizability?

aMost of the data have come from predominantly black, working-class, African populations.

bMost of the data have come from samples of individuals between 9 and 20 years of age.

cMost of the data have come from predominantly white, upper-class, African populations.

dThe data have been collected across too wide a spectrum of socioeconomic backgrounds.

eMost of the data have come from samples of individuals between 60 and 70 years of age.

17Who was the first investigator to assess the heritability of specific cognitive abilities?

aThurstone.

bGuilford.

cPiaget.

dPlomin.

eVandenberg.

18Which of the following sums up Horn’s (1988) findings concerning fluid and crystallized abilities?

aCrystallized ability – 60% heritable, fluid ability – 20% heritable.

bCrystallized ability – 10% heritable, fluid ability – 60% heritable.

cCrystallized and fluid ability – 20% heritable.

dCrystallized ability – 0% heritable, fluid ability – 90% heritable.

eCrystallized and fluid ability – 60% heritable.

19What were the four groups of specific cognitive factors revealed in the Hawaii Family Study of Cognition?

aVerbal, spatial, perceptual speed, and visual memory.

bNumerical, language, perceptual speed, and visual memory.

cVerbal, numerical, perceptual speed, and motor manipulation.

dSpatial, language, motor manipulation, and social.

eVerbal, perceptual speed, visual memory, and social.

20What is the significance of the finding that nonshared environmental influences have lasting effects on cognitive abilities throughout childhood?

aIt demonstrates the strength of the genetic role in cognitive abilities.

bIt indicates that environmental factors have an important effect on cognitive abilities at the time of their emergence.

cIt indicates that siblings should be raised together.

dIt indicates that siblings should be raised apart.

eIt has prompted an etiological explanation of schizophrenia implicating environmental factors experienced in early childhood.

Chapter 4

Prenatal Development.

1Which of the following sensory modalities has no significant input prior to birth?

aVision.

bHearing.

cChemosensory.

dTouch.

eVestibular.

2In which part of the nervous system do the cerebral hemispheres reside?

aThe hindbrain.

bThe midbrain.

cThe forebrain.

dThe spinal cord.

eThe peripheral nervous system.

3Which of the following is a function of the hindbrain?

aBreathing control.

bBlinking reflexes.

cLanguage.

dMemory.

eConscious thought.

4The development of which process allows the brain to modify action rather than simply cause it?

aExcitation.

bInhibition.

cMemory.

dMental imagery.

eNeural migration.

5What term is given to “the formation of a fatty insulator around nerve fibers”?

aSynaptogenesis.

bSynaptoexodus.

cMyelination.

dMyoinsulation.

eRanviation.

6Which of the following areas of cerebral cortex is thought to be concerned with hearing?

aThe frontal lobe.

bThe occipital lobe.

cThe parietal lobe.

dThe association areas.

eThe temporal lobe.

7Which constituent of urine may be important in stimulating the chemosensory system before birth?

aUrea.

bWater.

cAmmonia.

dBilirubin.

eUreaic acid.

8What sensory system is most likely to be responsible for most babies lying head down before delivery?

aVisual.

bAuditory.

cChemosensory.

dTouch.

eVestibular.

9Why might a dark environment be supposed to be necessary for prenatal visual development?

aPremature infant experience with ambient light is associated with subtle visual deficits.

bNewborn infant experience with ambient light is associated with subtle visual deficits.

cExperience of the prenatal mother with ambient light is associated with subtle visual deficits in the child.

dAll of vision is innate.

eBecause light produces too much stress in the infant.

10Which of the following develops first in the fetal eye?

aEye movements.

bEye muscles.

cCornea.

dLens.

eRetina.

11What is the first stage in the visual system where color and fine detail are topologically separated from gross form and motion?

aThe retina.

bThe left eye.

cThe primary visual cortex.

dThe lateral geniculate nucleus.

eThe hypothalamus.

12How many bones are there in the mature middle ear?

a1.

b2.

c3.

d4.

e5.

13What are Borborygmi?

aA tribe of small people in North Africa, who are thought to be born prematurely as a group.

bThe sounds of the mother’s voice in the uterus.

cThe gastrointestinal sounds in the uterus.

dThe sounds of irregular heartbeats in the uterus.

eThe irregular heartbeats measured in premature babies.

14What term is given to sensory learning that is carried forward into the newborn period?

aPerinatal learning.

bPrenatal learning.

cPostnatal learning.

dTransnatal learning.

eIntranatal learning.

15Which technique did DeCasper and Fifer (1980) employ to examine whether newborn infants prefer familiar or unfamiliar voices?

aSerial habituation–dishabituation.

bFixed-trial familiarization.

cVisual preference.

dNon-nutritive sucking.

eConditioned head-turn response.

16What percentage of perinatal complications are thought to have their origins in genetic factors alone?

a10–15%.

b20–25%.

c30–35%.

d40–45%.

e50–55%.

17Which of the following is not an autosomal genetic disorder?

aSickle-cell disease.

bCystic fibrosis.

cHuntingdon’s disease.

dDown’s syndrome.

eMarfan syndrome.

18Which of the following is associated with higher birthweight?

aInfant risk for future breast cancer.

bInfant risk for future cardiovascular disease.

cInfant risk for future schizophrenia.

dInfant risk for future antisocial personality disorder.

eInfant risk for future mortality.

19Which of the following fetal reflexes has little if any obvious significance in later life?

aBreathing.

bRooting.

cSucking.

dSwallowing.

eToe-curling.

20According to DiPietro et al. (1996), how much of the variance of infant temperament can be accounted for by indices of fetal neurobehavior?

a20%.

b30%.

c40%.

d50%.

e60%.

Chapter 5

Perception, Knowledge, and Action in Infancy.

1How much greater is adult visual acuity than that of the newborn child?