Module 18: Review Quiz (Modules 13-17)
1. The calcium DRI for a 30 year old female is _____ mg, whereas the DRI for calcium for a 55 year old woman is _____ mg.
a. 1200; 1000
b. 800; 1000
c. 1000; 800
d. 1000; 1200
2. A post menopausal woman is lactose intolerant and looking for dairy choices she might tolerate. You suggest:
a. yogurt and parmesan
b. yogurt and goat milk
c. cottage cheese and parmesan
d. yogurt and cottage cheese
3. DRI values are created by which of the following?
a. National Institutes for Health, Nutrition Division
b. Food & Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine
c. American Medical Association
d. National Food & Education Board
4. The calcium DRI for a 60 year old male is:
a. 1000 mg
b. 800 mg
c. 1300 mg
d. 1200 mg
5. Niacin has a UL of 35 mg for adults ages 19-70. This indicates:
a. an RDA cannot be determined; this amount is based on the amount presumed to be adequate
b. the average amount of a nutrient which meets 97-98% of healthy peoples' needs
c. 35 mg is the safe upper limit of niacin that should prevent risk of negative health effects
d. meets needs of 1/2 healthy people from ages 19-70
6. Choline has an AI of 425 mg among females ages 19-30. This indicates:
a. the RDA cannot be determined; based on the amount presumed to be adequate
b. nutrient value estimated to meet the needs of half of healthy people in a stage of life and gender
c. average amount of choline adequate to meet needs of 97-98% of healthy people
d. the upper limit of a nutrient that should not present risk of negative health effects
7. Vitamin C has an RDA of 75 mg for females ages 51-70. This indicates:
a. nutrient value estimated to meet the needs of half of healthy people
b. average amount of vitamin C adequate to meet needs of 97-98% of healthy people
c. used when a RDA cannot be determined
d. the upper limit of a nutrient that should not present risk of negative health effects
8. A client eats 2 slices of wheat bread with 1 T. peanut butter and 1 t. honey for lunch. Based on MyPyramid, which of these is true about the meal?
a. contains 4 oz. grain and 1 oz. meat
b. contains 4 oz. grain and 1/2 oz. meat
c. contains 2 oz. grain and 1 oz. meat
d. contains 2 oz. grain and 1/2 oz. meat
9. How many carbohydrate exchanges are in 2 cups rice and 1 cup teriyaki chicken?
a. 6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8
10. How many carbohydrate exchanges are in the following meal: 2 cups pasta with 1 teaspoon margarine, 1 cup tossed salad, 1 cup grape juice?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 9
d. 7
11. Using the exchange system, which of the following best describes a cheeseburger on a whole wheat bun with 2 oz. ground beef and 1 oz. cheddar cheese?
a. 3 medium fat meats
b. 3 high fat meats
c. 1 medium fat meat, 2 high fat meats
d. 2 medium fat meats, 1 high fat meat
12. Using the exchange system, which of the following best describes a tuna fish sandwich on wheat bread with 2 oz. tuna fish canned in water, 1 t. mayonnaise, and 1 cup cranberry juice?
a. 1 fat, 2 very lean meats, 4 carbohydrates
b. 1 fat, 2 lean meats, 5 carbohydrates
c. 1 fat, 2 very lean meats, 5 carbohydrates
d. 1 fat, 2 lean meats, 4 carbohydrates
13. How many calories does the following meal provide based on the exchange system? 3 oz. broiled hamburger, 3 oz. baked potato with 2 T. sour cream, 1 cup steamed broccoli, and 1 cup 2% milk.
a. 420 calories
b. 520 calories
c. 370 calories
d. 600 calories
14. A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes patient sees you for follow up and is confused about CHO content in juice. Which of the following is true?
a. in equal measure, cranberry juice contains more carbohydrate than apple juice
b. in equal measure, grape juice contains less carbohydrate than grapefruit juice
c. in equal measure, orange juice contains more carbohydrate than prune juice
d. in equal measure, pineapple juice contains more carbohydrate than orange juice
15. A patient is in ICU with head trauma due to a car accident. This male patient is 5'8" and 165 lbs. Calculate his protein needs.
a. 150 grams
b. 185 grams
c. 80 grams
d. 60 grams
16. Aldosterone:
a. regulates iron levels
b. is secreted by the hypothalamus
c. none of these
d. regulates sodium balance
17. A patient is educated on use of an insulin pump to match CHO consumed. Which level of CHO counting is being learned?
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
18. When reading a food label, what is the minimum grams of fiber per serving required to indicate the product is high in fiber?
a. 10 grams
b. 5 grams
c. 3 grams
d. 7 grams
19. A patient is diagnosed with Celiac disease. Which of the following is acceptable for this diet?
a. rye flour
b. corn flour
c. wheat flour
d. oat flour
20. How many carbohydrate exchanges are in the following meal: 3 oz. pork tenderloin, 1 cup mashed potatoes, 1/2 cup cooked carrots, and 1 cup cranberry juice?
a. 2
b. 7
c. 9
d. 5
21. How many meat exchanges are in the following meal: 3 oz. halibut filet, 1 cup rice, 1/2 cup cooked carrots, and 1 cup reduced calorie cranberry juice cocktail?
a. 1 very lean meat
b. 2 lean meat
c. 3 very lean meat
d. 3 lean meat
22. How many cups of vegetables and fruits per day does the 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans suggest someone have if they are consuming a 2,000 kcal diet?
a. 2 1/2 cups vegetables and 2 cups fruit
b. 3 cups vegetables and 2 cups fruit
c. 3 cups vegetables and 2 1/2 cups fruit
d. 2 1/2 cups vegetables and 3 cups fruit
23. MyPyramid depicts:
a. 5 colored bands representing grains, vegetables, fruits, milk, and meat & beans
b. 4 colored bands representing grains, vegetables and fruits, milk, meat & beans
c. 7 colored bands representing grains, vegetables, fruits, milk, oils, meat & beans
d. 6 colored bands representing grains, vegetables, fruits, milk, meat & beans, and oils
24. Which of the following is not a 2005 Dietary Guideline for Americans?
a. consume <2300 mg sodium and <10% saturated fat
b. consume <30% kcal from fat and <300 mg cholesterol
c. consume <300 mg cholesterol and <10% saturated fat
d. consume 20-35% kcal from fat with most fats from MUFA and PUFA
25. EAR is:
a. average amount of nutrient adequate to meet needs of 97-98% of healthy people
b. used when a RDA cannot be determined
c. the upper limit of a nutrient that should not present risk of negative health effects
d. nutrient value estimated to meet the needs of half of healthy people in a stage of life and gender
26. A patient is diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following should be avoided?
a. pasta and whole milk cheese
b. skim milk and eggs
c. fruits and whole grains
d. whole milk cheese and alcohol
27. A patient has an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following herbal supplements is contraindicated?
a. echinacea
b. garlic
c. valerian
d. ginseng
28. A patient with cholecystitis is referred to you for diet consult. You recommend:
a. low sodium diet
b. low fat diet
c. low protein diet
d. low carbohydrate diet
29. A patient is recovering from PTCA and is referred to you. You recommend:
a. low salt diet
b. DASH diet
c. low protein diet
d. Step II diet
30. A patient reports he is taking St. John's Wort. This supplement is contraindicated with:
a. steroid therapy
b. anticoagulant medications
c. anti-depressant medication
d. thyroid disorders
31. A patient is taking Valerian. Claimed uses of this supplement include:
a. sedative effect
b. antibacterial agent
c. energy improvement
d. anti-depressant
32. Hypertension is a disorder that contraindicates use of which of the following supplements?
a. Ginko Biloba
b. Ma Huang
c. Echinacea
d. Valerian
33. A diabetic patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis. As a result, you expect the patient's kidneys to:
a. decrease production of ammonia
b. increase bicarbonate excretion
c. increase production of ammonia
d. none of these
34. If iron is listed on a food label as 24% of the daily value, we would know a serving contains:
a. high source of iron
b. good source of iron
c. fair source of iron
d. none of these
35. A patient has Prader-Willi Syndrome. Which of these may be recommended?
a. increase calcium intake
b. high calorie foods to support weight gain
c. locking the refrigerator and food cabinets
d. limiting purine containing foods
36. A burrito package indicates the product is low in saturated fat. How many grams of saturated fat do you expect to see per serving?
a. 4 grams or less
b. 3 grams or less
c. trivial amount of fat
d. 1 gram or less
37. A package of candy indicates it is low calorie. How many calories would you find per serving?
a. 100 kcals or less
b. 20 kcals or less
c. 40 kcals or less
d. 60 kcals or less
38. Which of the following would disallow a food from making a health claim?
a. contains 15% DV for calcium
b. contains 21% DV for sodium
c. contains 15% DV for saturated fat
d. contains 11% DV for fiber
39. Which of the following health claim is associated with sugar alcohols?
a. dental caries
b. diabetes
c. lactose intolerance
d. hypoglycemia
40. A patient in the ICU is admitted for burns over 40% of her body. Immediately after her injury, her body temperature, blood pressure, and metabolic rate _____ as she is experiencing _____.
a. decreases; hypovolemic shock
b. increases; hypovolemic shock
c. decreases; flow phase
d. increases; flow phase
41. After taking 75 grams of oral glucose solution, a OGTT reveals 210 mg/dl after 2 hours. This indicates:
a. normal levels
b. hypoglycemia
c. pre-diabetes
d. diabetes
42. A hemoglobin A1c reveals blood sugar levels over:
a. 1-2 months
b. 3-6 months
c. 2-3 months
d. 2 weeks
43. Which of the following food label health claims is associated with soy protein?
a. cancer
b. heart disease
c. osteoporosis
d. hypertension
44. A patient has a fasting glucose level of 130 mg/dl, indicating:
a. normal levels
b. diabetes
c. hypoglycemia
d. pre-diabetes
45. An AIDS patient is experiencing xerostomia. You recommend:
a. increase electrolyte replacement
b. high calorie foods
c. small, frequent meals
d. foods that are moist
46. This product is eligible to make a health claim due to its potassium content. Which of the following health concern would you find it linked to?
a. heart disease
b. neural tube defects
c. stroke
d. cancer
47. A dialysis patient has a phosphorous level of 2.0 mg/dl. You recommend:
a. add an additional serving of milk each day
b. eliminate phosphorous containing foods from the diet
c. increase high protein foods
d. none of these
48. A patient with reflux should avoid all of the following except:
a. coffee
b. chocolate
c. peppermint oil
d. whole grain bread
49. Which of the following herbs are contraindicated when taking anticoagulant medications?
a. st. john's wort & echinacea
b. ginko biloba & garlic
c. ginseng & valerian
d. ephedra & garlic
50. Which of the following is acceptable for a child diagnosed with galactosemia?
a. wheat toast, yogurt, and orange juice
b. oat cereal, soy milk, and dates
c. wheat toast, cottage cheese, and apple juice
d. oat cereal, soy milk, and banana
51. A patient's source of nutrients for the past 10 days has been a daily amount of 1.5 liters of D10 IV. You are concerned with risk for:
a. marasmus
b. potassium deficiency
c. none of these
d. kwashiorkor
52. A patient is placed on a weight loss diet. If the patient normally consumes 2900 kcal and is now consuming 1800 kcal, how many pounds would you expect this patient to lose each week?
a. 2 lb
b. 1 lb
c. 3 lb
d. none of these
53. A patient with gout would be advised to:
a. consume low carbohydrate diet
b. consume low to moderate amounts of foods containing purines
c. consume low amounts of simple sugars
d. consume high fiber diet
54. Which of the following might indicate TPN?
a. AIDS
b. COPD
c. anorexia nervosa
d. short bowel syndrome
55. A patient experiencing edema is:
a. accumulating intracellular water
b. consuming low amounts of sodium
c. accumulating interstitial water
d. none of these
56. A pregnant woman has PKU. Which of these amino acids do you advise decreased in her diet?