1, What type of injury is a gunshot wound?
A) Crush B) Compression C) Amputation D) Penetration
2. What type of injury allows a pool of blood to collect under the skin?
A) Abrasion B) Avulsion C) Contusion D) Hematoma
3, A flap of skin tom loose describes what type of injury?
A) Abrasion
B) Avulsion
C) Laceration
D) Amputation
4. When an extremity is severed from the body, it is called:
A) a laceration. B) an avulsion. C) an abrasion. amputation.
5. A gunshot victim has a sucking chest wound. What type of dressing should you apply?
A) Occlusive
B) Loose, bulky
C) Dry, sterile
D) Moist, sterile
6. What type of dressing should you apply to an abdominal evisceration?
A) Betadine
B) Dry, sterile
C) Moist, sterile
D) Vaseline gauze
7. Organs are protruding from your patient's abdominal wound. The organs should be
A) ~ left alone.
B) placed back inside.
C) removed as needed.
D) wrapped in aluminum foil.
8. What type of dressing should be applied to all bums?
A) Betadine B) Vaseline C) Dry, sterile D) Moist, sterile
9. Muscles allow body:
A) structure
B) circulation.
C) movement.
D) development.
10. The spinal column bones are called:
A) ribs.
B) discs.
C) vertebrae.
D) phalanges.
11. When splinting an injury, you should immobilize the:
A) injury site.
B) joint below the injury.
C) joint above the injury.
D) joint above and below the injury.
12. You should immobilize all suspected spinal injuries in:
A) traction splints.
B) the prone position.
C) the position of deformity .
D) the neutral in-line position.
13. Which of the following bones is most commonly injured?
A) Tibia
B) Femur
C) Radius
D) Clavicle
14. A patient has a painful, swollen, deformed extremity. Your treatment should include:
A) casting. B)splinting. C) irrigation. D) debridement.
15. Blood is carried away from the heart by the:
A) veins.
B) arteries.
C) systemic capillaries.
D) pulmonary capillaries.
16. In the pulmonary circulatory system, deoxygenated blood leaves the heart and travels to the lungs via the:
A) aorta.
B) pulmonary vein.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) superior vena cava.
17. What term is used to describe the flow of blood from an artery through a capillary to a vein?
A)Perfusion
B) Metabolism
C) Systolic pressure
D) Diastolic pressure
18. An infant with a blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock after what amount of blood loss?
A) 80 to 100 mL
B) 100 to 220 mL
C) 220 to 320 mL
D) 320 to 420 mL
19. The primary method of controlling bleeding is by:
A) elevation.
B) direct pressure.
C) pressure points.
D) packing the wound.
20. What is the most important sign in assessing the hypoperfused patient?
A) Broken bones
B) "Raccoon eyes"
C) Amount of blood on clothes
D) Altered level of consciousness
21. What type of shock results from internal and external bleeding?
A) Psychic
B) Neurogenic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Hypovolemic
22. Suspicion of internal bleeding should NOT be based on:
A)hypotension.
B) hypertension.
C) mechanism of injury .
D) clinical signs and symptoms.
23. Which of the following can be a late indicator of shock?
A) Restlessness
B) Decreased thirst
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Decreased respiratory rate
24. What cells form a watertight, protective seal for the body?
A) Dermis
B) Epidennis
C) Muscle layer
D) Subcutaneous layer
25. The skin is the major organ for regulating the body's:
A) functions.
B) secretions.
C) respirations.
D) temperature.
26. You are treating a patient with an impaled object in the leg. The object should be:
A) left alone.
B) stabilized in place.
C) carefully removed.
D) covered with a loose dressing.
27. The first step in treating any burn is to:
A) insert an IV .
B) cover the wound.
C) soak it in cold water.
D) stop the burning process.
28. A dry chemical has been spilled on your patient. You should:
A) brush it off.
B) irrigate it with water.
C) obtain a sample for identification.
D) not go near the patient.
29. The main purpose of a bandage is to:
A) splint fractures.
B) prevent infection.
C) create an airtight seal.
D) hold dressings in place.
30. Bums are considered moderate if they are:
A) associated with any degree of respiratory injury.
B) full-thickness bums of 2% to 100/0 of the body area
C) complicated by bone injuries.
D) full-thickness bums of the hands and feet.
31. Using the Rule of Nines, you would calculate that an adult with circumferential bums of both legs would have what percentage of bum?
A) 9
B) 18
C) 36
D) 54
32. Which of the following is considered to be the structural framework of the body?
A) Nerves
B) Muscles
C) Skeleton
D) Ligaments
33. Bone deformity, with no evidence of a break in the skin, describes what type of fracture? ., ,...
A) Open
B) Closed
C) Distal
D) Penetrating
34. The primary reason for splinting a bone is to
A) replace protruding bones.
B) prevent swelling.
C) prevent blood flow.
D) prevent motion of bone fragments.
35. To prevent pressure and discomfort, all rigid splints should be:
A) wide.
B) secure.
C) padded.
D) aluminum.
36. After applying a splint to an injured limb, you should next:
A) measure the splint.
B) immobilize the limb with a splint.
C) assess motor function, sensation, and circulation.
D) follow body substance isolation (BSI) techniques.
37. How many times should you attempt to reposition a slightly angulated broken bone? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
38. Which of the following types of splints should be used for a shoulder dislocation?
A) Air
B) Rigid
C) Pillow
D) Traction
39. Which of the following types of splints should be used for a fracture to the clavicle? A) Pillow splint
A) Sling and swathe
B) limit mobility.
C) enhance circulation.
40. Into what two parts is the nervous system divided?
A) Sensory and somatic
B) Sensory and autonomic
C) Peripheral and somatic
D) Central and peripheral
41. The largest part of the brain is the
A) cranium.
B)cerebrum.
C)cerebellum.
D) foramen magnum.
43. The dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid are layers of tissue that enclose the brain and spinal cord
Together. they are called the:
A) meninges.
B) spinal cord.
C) brain stem.
D) motor nerves.
44. The nervous system has a built-in protection action that withdraws the body from pain. What is this action called?
A) Reflex
B) Somatic
C) Conscious
D) Automatic
45. How many vertebrae protect the spinal cord?
A) 7
B) 12
C) 31
D) 33
46. When you suspect a head injury, it is important to look at:
A) scene safety.
B)personal safety.
C) The mechanism of injury .
D) the mechanism of extraction.
47. What device should be used to maintain an open airway in an unconscious patient?
A) Jaw screw
B) Tongue blade
C) Oropharyngeal airway
D) Nasopharyngeal airway
48. A cervical collar must NOT prevent the patient or you from:
A) lateral movement.
B) opening the airway.
C) rotational movement.
D) axial loading of the neck.
49. After ensuring an open airway in a patient with a spinal injury, your next step should be to:
A) cervical traction. B) the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. C)apply in-line cervical stabilization. D) complete a detailed physical exam.
50. During extrication, a short spine board should only be used to immobilize a patient who is:
A) prone. B) sitting. C) supine. D) standing.
51. After stabilizing the head and applying a cervical collar, the first body part to be secured to the short
spine board is the: A) head. B) chest. C) legs. D) chin.
52. You should use rapid extrication to remove the patient when the scene is:
A) a car.
B) clear.
C) secure.
D) threatening.
53. The helmet must NOT prevent access to the patient's:
A) eyes.
B) airway.
C) carotid pulse.
D) posterior neck.
54. Signs and symptoms of a brain injury include:
A) scalp laceration.
B) low blood pressure.
C) blood from the mouth.
D) .clear fluid from the ears and nose.
55. The first step in restoring the airway of an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury is to: A) use a jaw-thrust maneuver, keeping the head in the position found. B) apply a simple face mask to provide more oxygen. C) insert an oropharyngeal airway. D) apply gentle traction (approximately 10 lb) and realign the head in the "eyes forward" position.
56. A man who was ejected from a car is lying in a supine position near the car. He requires immobilization
]n a long spine board. You should:
place a large pad behind his back.
~ log roll the patient toward the board and place him in a prone position. ~ ~ secure the patient's trunk to the board before his head and neck.
"B . assign the person at the foot of the patient to coordinate the logrolling activity.
57.
The most important observation you can make and record in a patient with a head injury is any change in the:
A) respiratory rate and pattern. B) level of consciousness.
C) blood pressure and pulse rate.
D) neurologic status of the extremities.
58. Your patient is a 4-month-old infant who is awake but appears to be lethargic and dehydrated. His mother states that he has had a 3-day history of diarrhea. Your treatment should include: A) giving two baby bottles of water. B) providing prompt transport. C) giving oxygen with a nonrebreathing face mask at 4 liters per minute.
D) helping the mother give the infant 2 tablespoons of an antidiarrheal medication.
59. Your patient is an 8-month-old infant with a complete airway obstruction. What technique should you use to clear the airway?
A) Five back blows and five chest thrusts
B) Five back blows and five abdominal thrusts
C) five abdominal thrusts and five chest thrusts
D) Blind finger sweep, five back blows, and five abdominal thrusts
60. Which of the following statements about a child's airway is FALSE?
A) The narrowest part of the airway is below the vocal cords.
B) The vocal cords are located higher in a child than in an adult.
C) The tongue is relatively small when compared to the jaw.
D) Stridor or crowing may indicate a partial airway obstruction.
61. While assessing a 4-month-old patient, you notice that the skin and mucous membranes are dry. What condition could this indicate?
A) Dyspnea
B) Dehydration
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Increased intracranial pressure
62. While assessing a 7-year-old patient, you notice that the child is hot and is complaining of a headache and stiff neck. What condition could this indicate?
A) Dyspnea
B) Dehydration
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Meningitis
63. A viral illness that causes acute swelling of the lining of the larynx below its opening is known as:
A) croup.
B) epiglottitis.
C) stridor.
D) crepitus.
64. What causes febrile seizures?
A) Severe lack of oxygen
B) Head injury from a fall
C) Very high body temperature
D) A Genetic defect
65. Your patient is a l-year-old child who has a very high body temperature. How should you reduce the temperature?
A) Put the child in ice water to lower the child's core temperature.
.,
B) Apply rubbing alcohol. The child will cool through the evaporation of the alcohol.
C) Place chemical "cold packs" on the skin, covering the arteries that are close to the surface of the skin
D) Undress the child and place him or her in a tub of cool water.
66. What is the number one cause of death in infants and children?
A) Trauma
B) Poisoning
C)Premature births
D) Cardiac abnormalities
67. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) most commonly occurs in children between the ages of:
A) 1 month and 2 years.
B) 2 months and 6 months.
C) 6 months and 1 year.
D) 6 months and 2 years.
68. The definition of an infant is a child between the ages of:
A) birth and 1 year.
B) 1 month and 6 months.
C) 1 month and 18 months.
D) 1 month and 2 years.
69. What is an important sign to look for in a child with a head injury?
A) Blood draining from the ears
B) Pupils constricted and equal in size
C) Level of consciousness
D) Level of consciousness and any change in the level of consciousness
70. A 2-year-old child has swallowed a bottle of furniture polish. What should your treatment include?
A) Give ipecac followed by water.
B) Stimulate the gag reflex to induce vomiting.
C) Provide transportation after contacting medical control.
D) Have the parents sign a release form because furniture polish is nontoxic.
71. When caring for a child, you should:
A) avoid separating the child from his or her parents when possible.
B) always assume the child is frightened and attempt to provide a familiar object like a toy to reduce fear
C) never remove clothing from the area of the perineum.
D) never tell the child. that treatment is going to hurt because the child will refuse to cooperate and may over react to the pain.
72. You have responded to the scene where a child has respirations of less than 10 breaths per minute. What is this respiratory condition called? A) Respiratory arrest B) Dyspnea
C) Tachypnea D) Orthopnea
73. The driver of an ambulance on an emergency call is operating warning lights and sirens. Most states permit the driver to:
A) disregard all traffic control signals.
B) drive as fast as the department allows.
C) drive at any speed, without fear of punishment.
D) exceed the speed limit, if done in a safe manner.
74. To get quickly to the scene of a medical emergency, you should: A) drive as fast as possible.
B) drive on the left side of the road.
C) take expressways whenever possible.
D) know a variety of routes to reach a destination.
75. Where do most ambulance accidents happen? A) Cities
B ) Rural areas
C) Intersections
D) Railroad crossings
76. Escort vehicles for ambulances should be: A) provided for added safety.
B) provided to decrease the chance of accidents.
C) provided to get the patient to the hospital faster. D) avoided whenever possible.
77. You are on an emergency run and you see a stopped school bus with red lights flashing. You should: A) pull to the left.
B) sound your siren and pass the bus.
C) slow down and pass in a safe manner.
D) stop until the red lights on the bus are turned off and the driver signals you to proceed.
78. Intersection accidents are the most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes. Which of the following statements about intersections is FALSE?
A) Emergency vehicles should follow one another very closely when passing through intersections.
B) You must be on the alert for drivers who time the lights.
C) you should stop before entering any intersection that has a red light or stop sign in your direction.
D) You must be alert for drivers who pass others stopped at intersections.
79. The purpose of extrication is to: A) take a car apart.
B) quickly remove a patient from a car. C) safely remove a trapped patient.
D) use special power tools to remove parts of a damaged car.
80. Your first safety concern at the scene of an extrication is to:
A) yourself.
B) the patient.
C) the bystanders.
D) public safety officials.
81. A closed soft tissue injury with swelling and ecchym9sis is called a: A) contusion. B) hematoma.
~ concussion.
D) crush injury.
82. What type of bleeding is difficult to control because of the high pressure? A) Venous B) Arterial
C) Capillary
D) Lymphatic
83. Which part of the nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord? A) Central B) Sensory C) Somatic
D) Autonomic
84. Which of the following are the three major areas of the brain? A) Frontal, parietal, occipital
B) Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem C) Cranium, brain stem, spinal cord
D) Cranium, skull, foramen magnum
85. The part of the brain responsible for cardiac, respiratory, and other vital life functions is called the: A) cerebrum.
B) brain stem. C) cerebellum.
D) occipital lobe.
86. Which device is used to immobilize patients found in a lying, standing, or sitting position? A) Oregon splint
B) Long spine board C) Short spine board
D) Kendrick extrication device
87. Face cages on football helmets are attached with clips. They can be removed quickly by:
A) Lifting. B) cutting. C) pulling. D) unsnapping.
88. How many EMT -Bs are needed to maintain immobilization of the cervical spine during helmet removal? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
89. During a four-person logroll, the rescuer in charge is at the patient's: A) head. B) chest. C) waist.
D) lower extremities.
90. Blood is returned to the heart by the: A) veins.
B ) arteries.
C) systemic capillaries.
D) pulmonary capillaries.
91. Hypoperfusion is another name for: A) shock.
B) cyanosis. C) hypoxia.
D) hypertension.
92. A steady flow of dark-colored blood is characteristic of:
A) venous bleeding.
B) arterial bleeding.
C) capillary bleeding.
D) emphatic bleeding.
93. External bleeding from a vein will characteristically be: A) bright red and will ooze.
B) dark bluish red and will flow in a steady stream. C) dark red and will ,fl°V:" ~ a steady stream. D) dark bluish red and will spurt.
94. A patient in shock states that he is thirsty. You should give him: A) two glasses of cold water.
B) two glasses of warm water with salt tablets. C) a piece of moist gauze to suck OD. D) nothing by mouth.
95. Coughing up bright red blood is known as: A) hemoptysis.
B) hematemesis. C) hematuria. D) hematoma.
96. A pneumatic counterpressure device is most commonly used to: A) decrease blood flow during CPR.
B) stabilize chronic pulmonary edema secondary to long-standing heart disease. C) control bleeding in adults only.
D) maintain a patient's systolic blood pressure at or slightly higher than 100 mm Hg.
97. A man who has fallen from the roof of a two-story house has obvious bone injuries to his lower extremities and is bleeding freely from a wound to his left side. He has a blood pressure of 104/54 mm Hg, a thready pulse of 128/min, and shallow respirations of 28/min. After securing his airway and giving oxygen by mask at 10 liters per minute, you should next: A) control the bleeding from the wound. B) splint the bone injuries.
C) record his vital signs again.
D) apply and inflate a pneumatic counterpressure device.
98. Which of the following types of splints is most appropriate for a patient who has arterial bleeding from a
lacerated arm?
A) Vacuum splint B) Air splint
C) Sling and swathe
D) cardboard splint
99. The passage of black, tarry stools is known as: A) ecchymosis.
B) hematochezia. C) melena.
D) hematuria.
100. Which of the following findings is LEAST likely to be associated with shock?
A)Weak pulse
B) Elevated respiratory rate
C) dry skin
D) A Systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mm Hg