Questions of Pathological Physiology 2nd year Physiotherapy (foreign students)
to graded credit
The Test allow students to comprehensively and conveniently assess and review their knowledge of a particular basic science, in this instance Pathophysiology. Each question is accompanied by four answers and only one answer is correct.
1. The major immunoglobulin class in normal adult human serum:
- The predominant antibody found in a primary immune response
- Found on the surface of mast cells
- A major component of mucosal secretions
- Can cross the placenta
- Which of the following cells are important in an innate immune response to extracellular bakteria?
- Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages?
- Compared with a healthy individual, lymph nodes from a patient with a deficienty in B cells would have
- A newborn infected with group B streptococci would produce and secrete antibody of which of the following class[es]?
- Eosinophils are associated with the defense against infections caused by
- To determine whether a fetus acquired an infection in utero, antigen-specific antibody of which of the following class should be measured?
- During an immune response, antibodies are made against different structures [usually proteins] on an infectious agent. These structures are referred to as
- Enhances phagocytosis of bakteria by opsonization
14. Mediates cytolysis
15. Binds to antibody to activate the classical pathway
16. A patient with a predisposition for infections Neisseria bacteria may have a deficiency in
17. Which of the following complement component deficiencies is associated with individuals with frequent pyogenic bacterial infections?
18. A person with an abnormality in which of the following early complement components would most likely have the most serious clinical manifestations?
19. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 is produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus and is thought to be responsible for the clinical manifestations of disease by this organism. This toxin is referred to as a superantigen because it can
20. Antiviral activity of antibody includes all of the following EXCEPT
21. During the course of an immune response to microbes, macrophages can cause damage to adjacent tissue by the release of all of the following EXCEPT
22. Goodpasture`s syndrome
23. Serum sickness associated with the condition described
24. Tuberculin reaction associated with the condition described
25. Poison ivy associated with the condition described
26. Anaphylactic reaction after bee sting associated with the condition described
27. Hemolytic disease of the newborn associated with the condition described
28. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis associated with the condition described
29. A patient with recurrent yeast infections and the incapacity to control viral infections may indicate a deficiency in
30. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function - promotes the proliferation of T and B lymphocytes – listed
31. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – promotes various biologic actions associated with inflammation – listed
32. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – activates macrophages and NK [natural killer] – listed
33. For the mediator of acute inflammation participate is true
34. Inflammation is associated with systemic signs and symptoms EXCEPT:
35. For the T-Cell disorders (DiGeorge Syndrome) is typical
36. IgA deficiency is a disorder in:
37. Passive immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?
38. Active immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?
39. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type I (Atopic, Anaphylactic)?
40. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type II (Cytotoxic, Cytolytic)?
41. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type III (Immune complex)?
42. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type IV (Delayed Hypersensitivity)?
43. If a person with blood group type A receives (by error) blood group type B, the resulting signs and symptoms include
44. Acute bacterial infections of the bone characteristically show all of the following EXCEPT
45. Infective endocarditis frequently occurs in injection drug users. The valve most often involved is
46. The pathogenesis of bacterial diarrhea involves all of the following EXCEPT
47. The endogenous mediators of sepsis include all of the following EXCEPT
48. The principal CD lymphocyte affected in HIV and AIDS is
49. The destruction of CD4 lymphocytes in HIV and AIDS involves all of the following EXCEPT
50. Typically HIV progresses from the onset of infection to evidence of immunosuppression over what period of time?
51. A patient who has the autosomal dominant gene for type I osteogenesis imperfecta has blue scleras and slightly reduced height, whereas his brother has multiple fractures and deformities. This is an example of
52. Your patient has an autosomal dominantly inherited disease. The patient and his grandfather show evidence of disease, but the patient`s father is asymptomatic. This is an example of
53. Two patients have the same eye color. They have the same
54. Cystic fibrosis
55. Which of the following conditions is known to be multifactorial in etiology and not due to a single gene disorder?
56. In the case of a dominant allele
57. All are true of human chromosomes EXCEPT
58. All are true of Down`s syndrome EXCEPT
59. Most children with Down`s syndrome are
60. Regarding life expectancy in Down`s syndrome
61. All are true of phenylketonuria [PKU] EXCEPT
62. The neurologic deficits of phenylketonuria [PKU] are due to
63. The different genetic forms of phenylketonuria [PKU] illustrate two different pathophysiologic mechanisms by which inborn errors of metabolism cause disease. These are
64. Sickle cell anemia
65. Cell as a part of a multicellular organism, needs to communicate with one another. Coordination of growth, cell division, and the functions of various tissues and organic systems are accomplished by principal means of communication EXCEPT
66. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the PROPHASE?
67. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the METAPHASE?
68. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the ANAPHASE?
69. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the TELOPHASE?
70. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the CYTOKINESIS?
71. Which of those sentences is correct?
72. Which of those sentences is correct?
73. Which of those sentences is correct?
74. Necrotic cells demonstrate typical changes EXCEPT
75. Apoptosis
76. Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent during which of the following stages of human evolution?
77. Chromosomal analysis reveals a 47, XYY karyotype. Which of the following descriptions best fits this abnormality?
78. Metabolic disease may include all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT
79. Initial tests that may help to diagnose an inborn error of metabolism include all the following EXCEPT
80. During endocytosis, low-density lipoprotein [LDL] is dissociated from its receptor in the:
81. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome
82. Individuals with Turner syndrome
83. For the malignant tumors fit following characteristics EXCEPT
84. Hyaline cartilage, which is the most common form of cartilage
85. In long bone development, hypertrophied chondrocytes are the source of:
86. Patients with Cushing`s syndrome often show osteoporotic changes. Which of the following characteristic is involved in the etiology of osteoporosis induced by Cushing`s syndrome?
87. What is the length of the sarcomere?
88. Which of the following statements is true for the cardiac muscle?
89. The cells responsible for the entry of human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] into the CNS are:
90. Regeneration of axons
91. The blood cell that is a precursor to microglia, Kupffer cells, and Langerhans cells is:
92. Distribution of blood to specific organs is regulated predominantly by:
93. Atherosclerosis is usually initiated by:
94. Which of the following is found in the plasma:
95. In the human fetus, the predominant site of hematopoiesis during gestational months 5 to 9 is the:
96. Anaphylactic shock is primarily due to the action of:
97. The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are:
98. Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from:
99. Which of the following occurs after exposure to ultraviolet [UV] radiation?
100. Decreased cytocrine secretion of melanin
101. A 42-year-old man has generalized lymphadenopathy, without fever or night sweats. His total white blood cell [WBC] count is elevated to 50,000, with small mature-appearing lymphocytes. A diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is ascertained. All of the following are typical characteristics of CLL EXCEPT
102. The etiology of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is
103. Which of the following factors complexes with factor VIII, which is activated to factors VIIIa when released from the complex?
104. Which of the following factors is/are dependent on vitamin K for synthesis?
105. Which of the following causes of anemia is NOT associated with larger than normal red cells [macrocytosis]?
106. Which of the following causes of an elevated hemoglobin concentration in the blood is characterized by a LOW level of erythropoietin in the blood?
107. Which of the following causes of an increase in the neutrophil count in the blood is NOT associated with an absolute increase in the number of circulating polymorphonuclear neutrophil leukocytes?
108. In a typical case of iron deficiency, which of the following molecular forms that contains or can bind to iron, increases in the patient`s serum?
109. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement pertaining to pernicious anemia?
110. Which of the following statements related to circulating erythrocytes [red cells] is untrue?
111. Which of the following statements concerning the relationship of the neutrophil polymorphonuclear leukocyte [PMN] to infection with bacterial pathogens is incorrect?
112. For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
113. For the question “If the item is associated with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
114. For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia and with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
115. Thrombocytopenia is most commonly produced by processes that reduce the survival of circulating platelets significantly below the normal average life span of 10 days. Which of the following statements about thrombocytopenia is true?
116. Acceleration of the destruction of platelets is owing to
117. Which of the following factors is not contributing to abnormal clotting in blood vessels [thrombosis]?
118. In the adult, the best place to sample for cells of this lineage would be
119. The granules that develop during differentiation of this cell type contain:
120. Human blood, if fresh, centrifuged in the presence of an anticoagulant such as heparin to obtain a hematocrit, the resulting fractions are:
121. Thrombocytopenia is a reduction in the number of circulating blood platelets. Which of the following would most likely occur in thrombocytopenia?
122. Erythrocytes may have abnormal shapes and sizes in certain diseases. In iron deficiency you would expect to see:
123. After loss or damage to the endothelium of a blood vessel, platelets carry out one of the following functions. Which one is it?
124. Cells that increase in number during an allergic reaction are:
125. Specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:
126. Non-specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:
127. Major component of pus is
128. Structure and granular content similar to that of mast cells is typical for
129. End product of protein catabolism in the blood is
130. End product of red blood cell destruction in the blood is
131. All of the following are typical waste products in the blood EXCEPT
132. Anemia is defined
133. All of the following are typical characteristic for aplastic anemia EXCEPT
134. Laboratory features for the anemia resulting from a deficiency of either B12 or folates are NOT:
135. Which of the following sentences is correct?
136. Sickle cell anemia
137. Acute blood loss anemia may present after trauma
138. For the pernicious anemia is valid:
139. For the iron deficiency anemia is valid
140. For the relative polycythemia is valid
141. For the absolute polycythemia vera is valid
142. For the secondary polycythemia is valid
143. Blood smear in folate deficiency anemia is:
144. Blood smear in relative polycythemia is:
145. Jaundice it is the typical symptom during
146. In the case of Hematochezia or melena excreta contains blood in
147. In the case of Hematemesis excreta contains blood in
148. All of the following are the causes of the coagulation disorders with prolonged bleeding from nasal or oral mucosa, deep tissue hematomas, spontaneous hematuria EXCEPT
149. Rh incompatibility
150. All of the following are etiology and pathogenesis of an insufficient quantity of platelets (fewer than 50,000/mm2) EXCEPT
- Which one of the following ECG components varies with heart rate?
152. Which of the following cardiac parameters does not increase during pregnancy?
153. Which of the following does NOT occur during diastole?
154. Which of the following is NOT a component of cardiac output?
155. For the complex or wave form on the ECG tracing to be accepted
156. A normal frontal plane QRS axis is
157. Which of the following associations is correct?
158. For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following description: A normal individual whose stroke volume increases as preload increases is curve
159. For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following description: A patient in congestive heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is curve
160. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral valve opens
161. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral wave closes
162. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic valve opens
163. Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic valve closes
164. Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Influx of sodium ions