Essentials of Fire Fighting, 6th Edition Fire Control
Chapter 17 Test
Name: / Date:Directions: Write the correct letter on the blank before each question.
Objective 1:
Describe initial factors to consider when suppressing structure fires.
1. Which strategy is typically selected when property is not salvageable? (1006)
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Offensive
D. Defensive
2. Which strategic transition may be necessary when the situation rapidly changes? (1007)
A. Indirect to direct
B. Direct to indirect
C. Offensive to defensive
D. Defensive to offensive
3. Which of the following guidelines should be used when switching strategies? (1007)
A. Turn off radios in order to maintain radio silence
B. Abandon hoselines when strategy change is made
C. Split away from team in order to cover more ground
D. Maintain situational awareness to recognize changes in fire behavior
4. Hoseline selection should be based on which of the following factors? (1008-09)
A. Potential fire spread
B. Location of exposures
C. Water pressure available
D. Number of available apparatus
5. Nozzle selection is based upon which of the following factors? (1009)
A. Size of building
B. Stream reach needed
C. Available water supply
D. Ease of hoseline deployment
Objective 2:
Summarize considerations taken when making entry.
6. Who makes the decision to make entry? (1011)
A. Safety officer
B. Incident commander
C. First-arriving firefighter
D. Rapid intervention crew
7. Which of the following pre-entry considerations is critical to firefighter safety and effectiveness? (1012)
A. Identifying exposures
B. Ensuring adequate water flow
C. Reading fire behavior indicators
D. Evaluating available forcible entry tools
8. If a fire is ventilation controlled, what will happen if a door is opened? (1012)
A. Fire will self-extinguish
B. Overhead gas layers will cool
C. Heat release rate will significantly increase
D. Added oxygen will decrease fire development
Objective 3:
Describe direct attack, indirect attack, combination attack, and gas cooling techniques.
9. In which type of fire attack is water applied directly onto burning fuels until the fire is extinguished? (1013)
A. Gas cooling
B. Direct attack
C. Indirect attack
D. Combination attack
10. Which type of fire attack is made through a window or other opening, directing the stream toward the ceiling to cool the room? (1014)
A. Gas cooling
B. Direct attack
C. Indirect attack
D. Combination attack
11. Which of the following slows the transfer of heat to other combustibles and reduces the chances of overhead gases igniting? (1015)
A. Gas cooling
B. Direct attack
C. Indirect attack
D. Combination attack
Objective 4:
Describe safety considerations that must be identified for upper level structure fires.
12. In fires in the upper levels of structures, which of the following determines the method of fire attack? (1016)
A. Available hoselines
B. Available personnel
C. Location of the stairway
D. Location of the standpipe
13. How may elevators be used at fires in upper levels of structures? (1016-17)
A. To transport equipment to the fire floor
B. To transport personnel to the staging area
C. To transport empty SCBA to the staging area
D. To transport firefighting tools to the fire floor
Objective 5:
Explain actions taken when attacking belowground structure fires.
14. Which of the following should be used to ensure that floor assemblies over basement fires are safe for personnel to work? (1019)
A. Thermal imager
B. Sounding of the floor
C. Visual inspection of floor joist
D. Temperature check of floor joists
15. Which of the following may provide firefighters the BEST access to a basement fire? (1019)
A. A window well
B. An above-ground window
C. An interior open stairwell
D. An interior enclosed stairwell
16. Which of the following statements regarding commercial basements and subfloors is MOST accurate? (1020)
A. They are only comprised of steel girders
B. They are usually less robust than residential basements
C. Those made of metal floor supports have little chance of failure
D. They may have similar construction to those in residential structures
Objective 6:
Discuss methods of fire control through exposure protection and controlling building utilities.
17. Which of the following may be used as interior exposure protection? (1021)
A. Proper use of forced ventilation
B. Use of fire-rated walls and doors
C. Applying water spray between fire and exposure
D. Opening doors between fire area and unaffected area
18. Which of the following is the primary location for shutting off power? (1023)
A. Power line
B. Transformer
C. Electric meter
D. Electrical panel
19. Which alternative energy source will include a shutoff switch on the electric meter? (1024)
A. Solar panels
B. Hydrogen cells
C. Nuclear power rods
D. Fuel-powered generators
20. In its pure form, natural gas is: (1025)
A. butane.
B. ethanol.
C. propane.
D. methane.
21. Liquefied petroleum gas is stored: (1026)
A. as a solid.
B. in a gaseous form.
C. in a liquid state under pressure.
D. in its purest form as butane gas.
22. The shutoff valves for water are located: (1026)
A. underground.
B. inside the house.
C. at the water department.
D. near the electrical meter.
Objective 7:
Describe steps taken when supporting fire protection systems at protected structures.
23. Which of the following is one of the FIRST priorities at a fire in a protected structure? (1027)
A. Shutting a control valve
B. Deploying a master stream
C. Stopping the flow from a sprinkler
D. Connecting to a fire department connection (FDC)
24. Which of the following is used to shut down the water supply to the entire fire protection system? (1027)
A. FDC
B. Control valve
C. Sprinkler head
D. Sprinkler system
25. Which type of control valve extends horizontally through the wall with a target and valve operating nut on the outside of building? (1028)
A. Post indicator valve
B. Outside stem and yoke
C. Wall post indicator valve
D. Post indicator valve assembly
Objective 8:
Explain considerations taken when deploying, supplying, and staffing master stream devices.
26. A master stream device should enter a structure: (1029)
A. in a straight line.
B. at an upward angle.
C. in a circular pattern.
D. at a downward angle.
27. The deployment of a master stream device requires a minimum of: (1030)
A. one firefighter.
B. two firefighters.
C. three firefighters.
D. four firefighters.
Objective 9:
Describe situations that may require suppression of Class C fires.
28. Class C fires are those involving: (1031)
A. combustible metals.
B. transportation vehicles.
C. stacked and piled materials.
D. energized electrical equipment.
29. If a ground cover fire starts near transmission lines: (1032)
A. extinguish the fire immediately.
B. wait for the fire to self-extinguish.
C. extinguish the fire using only Class A foam.
D. wait for the fire to burn away from the point of contact.
30. At fires in electrical transformers, which type of extinguisher should be used? (1033)
A. Water
B. Class A foam
C. CO2 extinguisher
D. Dry chemical extinguisher
31. Firefighters and the public should stay at least ___ from underground transmission lines during a fire. (1033)
A. 100 feet (30 m)
B. 200 feet (60 m)
C. 300 feet (91 m)
D. 400 feet (120 m)
32. At fires at commercial high-voltage installations, the entry team must wear: (1034)
A. full PPE, including SCBA.
B. vapor protective clothing.
C. wildland firefighting clothing.
D. chemical protective clothing.
Objective 10:
Identify hazards associated with suppressing Class C fires.
33. Which of the following is a guideline for electrical emergencies? (1036)
A. Cut power lines upon arrival
B. Move any vehicles that are in contact with electrical wires
C. Stay at least 20 feet (6 m) from power lines when raising ladders
D. Use lockout/tagout devices when working on electrical equipment
34. If a firefighter is inside the gradient field of a grounded power line or feels a tingling in the legs, they should ___ away from the area. (1037)
A. run
B. hop
C. walk
D. crawl
Objective 11:
Describe actions associated with suppressing Class D fires.
35. Class D fires involve: (1037)
A. combustible metals.
B. transportation vehicles.
C. stacked and piled materials.
D. energized electrical equipment.
36. How should a Class D fire be extinguished? (1037)
A. By dousing it with water
B. By directing hose streams onto it
C. By using dry chemical extinguishers
D. By shoveling Class D extinguishing agents onto it
Objective 12:
Explain actions taken when suppressing a vehicle fire.
37. Which of the following should be determined during vehicle incident size-up? (1039)
A. Type of fuel
B. If engine is still running
C. Vehicle make and model
D. Number of victims and their ages
38. Which of the following is a guideline for vehicle fire attacks? (1039)
A. Rescue vehicle occupants first
B. Position hoseline behind exposures
C. Attack the fire from a 90-degree angle
D. Deploy hoseline that will provide a minimum of 95 gpm (360 L/min)
39. Which of the following should be done once the fire has been controlled? (1041)
A. Remove air bags
B. Remove fuel tanks
C. Disconnect the battery
D. Disconnect automatic locks and windows
40. In passenger compartment fires, what nozzle pattern should be used through a broken window? (1042)
A. Narrow fog pattern
B. Medium fog pattern
C. Direct stream pattern
D. Direct straight stream pattern
41. Which of the following is a visual indicator of an alternative fuel vehicle? (1042)
A. Vehicle size
B. Vehicle year
C. Vehicle color
D. Vehicle profile
42. Fuel tanks on a natural gas vehicle are often located: (1043)
A. under the hood.
B. in the trunk area.
C. under the vehicle.
D. behind the rear tires.
43. What tactics should be used at incidents involving liquefied petroleum gas vehicles? (1044)
A. Extinguish fire immediately
B. Approach from a 90-degree angle
C. Use gas detectors to determine leaks
D. Direct fire streams at bottom of LPG tank
44. What should be done if smoke is visible at an electrical vehicle incident? (1045)
A. Chock wheels
B. Secure vehicle
C. Turn off ignition
D. Wear full PPE and SCBA
45. If a vehicle using ethanol or methanol is on fire, use only ___ to extinguish. (1046)
A. water
B. Class D fire extinguishers
C. aqueous film forming foam
D. Alcohol Resistant Class B foam
46. What should be done for a fire involving a hydrogen-fueled vehicle? (1046)
A. Extinguish the fire immediately
B. Request hazardous materials team
C. Cut A, B, and C posts for easiest extrication
D. Protect exposures and allow fuel to burn off
Objective 13:
Compare methods used to suppress fires in stacked and piled materials, small unattached structures, and trash containers.
47. At fires involving stacked and piled materials, fire streams should be directed at the: (1047)
A. middle of the fire.
B. extreme edge of the fire.
C. exposures surrounding the fire.
D. ground, deflecting up onto the fire.
48. What fire streams are most effective at fires involving small unattached structures? (1047)
A. Fog streams
B. Master streams
C. Narrow streams
D. Straight streams
Objective 14:
Summarize the main influences on ground cover fire behavior.
49. Which of the following statements regarding ground cover fires is MOST accurate? (1049)
A. They are very slow moving.
B. They are usually very small in size.
C. They are always caused by natural events.
D. Their characteristics are very different from fires in burning buildings.
50. Which of the following is an influence on ground cover fires? (1049)
A. Weather
B. Size of fire
C. Cause of fire
D. Ignition sources
Objective 15:
Compare types of ground cover fires.
51. Which kind of ground cover fire is slow moving and smoldering? (1050)
A. Crown fire
B. Ladder fire
C. Ground fire
D. Surface fire
52. Which kind of ground cover fire burns on the soil surface, consuming low-lying grass, shrubs, and other vegetation? (1050)
A. Crown fire
B. Ladder fire
C. Ground fire
D. Surface fire
Objective 16:
Describe elements that influence ground cover fire behavior.
53. Which kind of fuels include grass, field crops, and downed limbs? (1051)
A. Aerial fuels
B. Ladder fuels
C. Surface fuels
D. Subsurface fuels
54. Which of the following statements regarding burning characteristics of ground cover fires is MOST accurate? (1051)
A. Heavy fuels burn faster than lighter fuels.
B. Fires spread faster when fuels are close together.
C. Fuels that contain more moisture burn with greater intensity
D. Loosely piled fuels burn slower than those that are tightly compacted.
55. Which topography features may alter air flow and cause turbulence? (1052)
A. Aspect
B. Chutes
C. Drainages
D. Local terrain
Objective 17:
Identify the parts of a ground cover fire.
56. Which of the following is a long narrow strip of fire extending from the main fire? (1052)
A. Head
B. Flank
C. Island
D. Finger
57. Which of the following is the side of the fire opposite the head? (1053)
A. Heel
B. Black
C. Origin
D. Green
58. Which of the following is the area of unburned fuel next to the involved area? (1053)
A. Spot
B. Green
C. Finger
D. Perimeter
Objective 18:
Describe protective clothing and equipment used in fighting ground cover fires.
59. Protective clothing used for ground cover fires should meet the requirements for NFPA®: (1054)
A. 1001.
B. 1205.
C. 1799.
D. 1977.
60. Which of the following is required for firefighters participating in ground cover fire fighting? (1054)
A. Web belt
B. Bunker gear
C. Nomex hood
D. Protective footwear
Objective 19:
Describe methods used to attack ground cover fires.
61. Which method for attacking ground cover fires is action taken against flames at its edge or closely parallel to it? (1054)
A. Direct attack
B. Indirect attack
C. Offensive attack
D. Defensive attack
62. Which method for attacking ground cover fires is used at varying distances from the advancing fire? (1054)