Introduction to Parliamentary Procedure - 2006 SLC
1) Motions to limit or close debate are not allowed in committee meetings.
A) True
B) False
2) When a committee is appointed, with power, this means with power to take all action necessary to carry out its instructions.
A) True
B) False
3) If previous notice is given at a meeting, it must be in writing.
A) True
B) False
4) When the minutes are approved, the word Approved, with the secretary’s initials and date, should be written below them.
A) True
B) False
5) Minutes should record all main motions whether they are adopted or lost.
A) True
B) False
6) Executive session means a secret meeting or session.
A) True
B) False
7) A rejected main motion can be brought up a second time during the same session.
A) True
B) False
8) A recess is a short intermission which does not end the meeting.
A) True
B) False
9) No main motion is in order that is in conflict with a motion previously adopted and still in force, unless it is processed as a motion to Rescind or Amend Something Previously Adopted.
A) True
B) False
10) The assembly can elect by voice even if the bylaws require a ballot vote.
A) True
B) False
11) Subsidiary motions assist the assembly in treating or disposing of a main motion.
A) True
B) False
12) Previous Question is the motion used to bring the assembly to an immediate vote on one or more pending questions.
A) True
B) False
13) It is out of order to lay a pending question on the table if there is evidently no other matter urgently requiring immediate attention.
A) True
B) False
14) A member rising to a Question of Privilege can interrupt pending business.
A) True
B) False
15) A motion to have a ballot vote is a privileged motion.
A) True
B) False
16) Incidental motions have no rank among themselves.
A) True
B) False
17) The quorum in a committee is a majority of its membership unless the assembly has prescribed a different quorum.
A) True
B) False
18) The name of the seconder should be included in the minutes.
A) True
B) False
19) A standing committee is constituted to perform a continuing function.
A) True
B) False
20) Except for details of very minor importance, only business mentioned in the call of a special meeting can be transacted at such a meeting.
A) True
B) False
21) A standing rule can be adopted by a majority vote at any session.
A) True
B) False
22) Any action taken that is in conflict with the bylaws is automatically null and void.
A) True
B) False
23) To consider a main motion later in the same meeting or at another meeting can be proposed by moving to postpone indefinitely.
A) True
B) False
24) The motion Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn is not in order when business is pending.
A) True
B) False
25) A subsidiary motion can be applied to any main motion.
A) True
B) False
26) A member can propose a short intermission by moving to recess.
A) True
B) False
27) A motion refers to a formal proposal by a member, in a meeting, that the assembly take certain action.
A) True
B) False
28) Incidental main motions and original main motions differ principally in the vote necessary to be adopted.
A) True
B) False
29) The motion Amend takes precedence over the motion to which it is applied.
A) True
B) False
30) When the bylaws provide that the president shall be ex-officio of all committees, the president
A) has the right, but not the obligation, to participate in committee proceedings.
B) is counted in the quorum.
C) must attend all of the meetings
31) A special committee
A) is on-going from administration to administration.
B) ceases to exist when it makes its final report.
C) is always created by the chair.
32) Corrections to the minutes
A) may never be made after being accepted by the assembly.
B) may be made at any time a mistake is discovered.
C) may be made only immediately after they are read to the assembly.
33) The minutes of a special meeting are approved
A) at the next regular meeting.
B) at a special meeting called for such purpose.
C) at the next special meeting.
34) A motion to go into executive session requires
A) a majority vote and previous notice.
B) previous notice.
C) a majority vote.
35) An adjourned meeting is
A) one that has been dissolved.
B) a meeting in continuation of the session of the immediately preceding meeting.
C) the one after lunch.
36) To be in order an amendment must be
A) long.
B) short.
C) germane.
37) A main motion is still within the control of the assembly after
A) it has been laid on the table.
B) adoption.
C) rejection by a negative vote.
38) When a motion to Recess is made while another motion is pending, it:
A) is an incidental main motion.
B) is a privileged motion.
C) is an incidental motion.
39) To put a motion aside temporarily, with no definite time for resuming its consideration, a member should:
A) move to Postpone Indefinitely.
B) rise to a Point of Order.
C) move to Lay on the Table.
40) If a member wishes to propose a change in a pending question, which motion is used?
A) Amend
B) Refer to a Committee
C) Postpone to a Certain Time
41) The lowest ranking motion is
A) Postpone Indefinitely.
B) Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn.
C) Main Motion.
42) In a series of motions where all are pending and in order, which of the following would be voted on first?
A) Limit Debate
B) Previous Question
C) Postpone Indefinitely
43) If there is a tie vote on a main motion, the result is
A) the vote is taken again.
B) the chair must vote to break the tie.
C) the motion is lost.
44) Any member has the right to
A) question the voice vote under any circumstances.
B) require that a voice vote be retaken as a rising vote when there is some doubt as to which side prevailed.
C) demand a counted vote.
45) A motion is open to debate when
A) the motion has been stated by the chair.
B) the motion is seconded.
C) a member has made the motion.
46) The seconder of a motion
A) does so only after being recognized.
B) should always stand and give his name.
C) need not obtain the floor.
47) A second implies that the seconder
A) agrees with the content of the motion.
B) wishes to speak second in debate.
C) agrees that the motion should come before the meeting.
48) If the chair makes a mistake in assigning the floor,
A) a member may raise a question of privilege.
B) he immediately asks the assembly to ratify the action taken.
C) a member may raise a point of order.
49) Before a member in a large assembly can speak in debate, he must
A) have paid the dues required by the organization.
B) get the attention of the chair by raising his hand.
C) obtain the floor.
50) In absence of a provision in the bylaws, the quorum of an organized society is
A) a majority of the entire membership.
B) the number most likely to attend a meeting except in bad weather.
C) a majority of those answering roll call.
51) Except for the corporate charter, the highest body of rules in a society is the
A) standing rules.
B) parliamentary authority of the society.
C) bylaws.
52) Members of an assembly
A) are required to vote.
B) may vote only if their dues are paid.
C) may make motions, debate, and vote.
53) The mass meeting is a meeting
A) of an unorganized group.
B) held in an open area or in a large building.
C) held as a demonstration for or against a cause.
54) The actions of any deliberative assembly are subject to
A) approval of the parent organization.
B) the bylaws and other rules of its organization plus all applicable laws.
C) change by a majority vote.
55) Sessions of permanently organized bodies usually follow
A) the order of business determined by the presiding officer.
B) the order of business decided upon immediately after the opening.
C) an established order of business.
56) When a proper motion has been made and seconded, the chair places it before the assembly by
A) putting the question.
B) stating the question.
C) having the motion repeated by the maker of the motion.
57) Unless there is a rule to the contrary, a member may speak
A) twice on the same question on the same day.
B) once during the same day.
C) twice during the same day.
58) A secondary motion must be acted upon or disposed of before
A) a main motion is in order.
B) an incidental motion is in order.
C) direct consideration of the main motion can be continued.
59) The motion Amend
A) modifies or clarifies the meaning of the main motion.
B) may be applied to any subsidiary motion.
C) is out of order if the motion to Postpone Indefinitely is pending.
60) There are ______specific goals of FBLA.
A) nine
B) seven
C) eight
61) Which article of the bylaws explains the qualifications for holding a national FBLA office?
A) Article VIII
B) Article VI
C) Article V
62) National FBLA honorary life members may be recommended by the
A) chapter adviser.
B) board of directors.
C) membership.
63) The administration of FBLA shall be vested in the
A) association president.
B) FBLA president.
C) chairman of the board of directors.
64) Which of the following states is not in the FBLA Western Region?
A) Montana
B) Wyoming
C) Hawaii
65) A state committee chairman shall be recommended by the
A) Membership.
B) association president.
C) state committee.
66) The FBLA president, secretary, and treasurer shall be nominated by a
A) CEO.
B) state chapter.
C) board of directors.
67) Only candidates approved by the ______shall be nominated for a national FBLA office.
A) board of directors
B) officer screening committee
C) National Executive Council
68) The president, secretary, and treasurer shall be elected by a
A) ballot vote of the local voting delegates.
B) ballot vote of the state voting delegates.
C) ballot or voice vote of the state voting delegates.
69) The FBLA ______shall assist the national office in keeping an accurate record of national officer travel expenses and disbursements and in planning national officer travel.
A) president
B) secretary
C) treasurer
70) Each FBLA state chapter in good standing shall be entitled to send
A) two voting delegates and one alternate from its active membership to NLC.
B) one voting delegate and one alternate from its active membership to NLC.
C) three voting delegates and two alternates from its active membership to NLC.
71) The quorum for all business meetings of the FBLA National Leadership Conference shall be
A) a majority of the registered voting delegates.
B) ¾ of the registered voting delegates.
C) 2/3 of the registered voting delegates.
72) Which group approves the committee appointments and the creation of new committees by the FBLA president?
A) The National Executive Council
B) The board of directors.
C) The CEO
73) The National Executive Council may conduct business by mail with action requiring what vote?
A) A majority of the members.
B) 2/3 of the members eligible to vote.
C) ¾ of the members eligible to vote.
74) An officer screening committee is composed of:
A) board members and advisory council members.
B) national officers and board members.
C) the CEO and elected national officers.
75) Committee business conducted by mail shall require a majority vote and reported to the committee members
A) when directed by the chair.
B) immediately.
C) not later than the next regular meeting.
76) The official colors of FBLA shall be
A) navy blue and gold.
B) blue and yellow.
C) blue and gold.
77) Amendments to the FBLA bylaws shall be submitted
A) to the association president no later than April 1.
B) to the association president no later than April 15.
C) to the board of directors no later than April 1.
78) Each FBLA state chapter will be sent copies of the approved amendments by
A) June 1.
B) May 1.
C) May 15.
79) The vote required for adoption of amendments to the FBLA bylaws is
A) a majority of the state voting delegates present and voting at NLC.
B) a majority of the local voting delegates present and voting at NLC.
C) a two-thirds vote of the state voting delegates present and voting at NLC.
80) The chairman who hears an objection to the consideration of a main motion just offered should first say:
A) "The objection just proposed is out of order."
B) "The consideration of the question is objected to. Shall the question be considered?"