Pediatrics

Tests (текстові тестові завдання)

1.  Name the main way of the infection entering at pneumonia:

A.  *bronchogenic

B.  hematogenic

C.  lymphogenic

D.  mixed

E.  urogenic

2.  In pneumonia etiology prevails:

A.  candida

B.  klebsiella

C.  *pneumococci

D.  staphylococci

E.  streptococci

3.  At the early childhood an acute pneumonia most often is:

A.  interstitial

B.  croupous (lobar)

C.  *microfocal

D.  segmental

E.  polysegmental

4.  Typical physical data at pneumonia are:

A.  diffuse dry wheezes

B.  local small moist wheezes

C.  diffuse small moist wheezes

D.  *diminished breath sounds

E.  local dry wheezes

5.  The chest X-ray sign typical for acute pneumonia is:

A.  strengthening of pulmonary picture (lung pattern)

B.  *infiltrative shadows

C.  emphysema

D.  dilation of lungs' roots

E.  pneumosclerosis

6.  What medicine is not used for improvement of the rheologic blood properties and microcirculation during treatment of acute pneumonia?

A.  rheopoliglucin

B.  heparin

C.  trental

D.  *droperidol

E.  curantil

7.  Duration of an acute pneumonia is:

A.  up to 4 weeks

B.  *up to 8 weeks

C.  up to 10 weeks

D.  up to 2 weeks

E.  up to 6 weeks

8.  In most cases an acute pneumonia at children of the early age develops as a result of:

A.  overheat

B.  super cooling

C.  violation of the regime

D.  *upper respiratory tract viral infection

E.  upper respiratory tract microbial infection

9.  To the pathogenetic links of an acute pneumonia does not belong:

A.  hypoxemia

B.  *alcalosis

C.  acidosis

D.  hypoxia

E.  bacteriemia

10.  To bronchopneumonia are not typical such laboratory changes:

A.  *reticulocitosis

B.  leucocytosis

C.  neutrophylosis

D.  elevated ESR

E.  anemia

11.  The clinical features of an acute pneumonia at children of the early age do not depend on the following:

A.  age

B.  sex

C.  premorbid state

D.  *nationality

E.  weight

12.  To the criteria of an acute pneumonia diagnosis do not belong:

A.  intoxication

B.  *epidemiological history

C.  local physical changes

D.  respiratory acidosis

E.  percussion changes

13.  Correlation of pulse and breathing 2 - 1,5 : 1 is typical for:

A.  Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.  Respiratory ins. I st.

C.  Respiratory ins. II st.

D.  *Respiratory ins. III st.

E.  Respiratory ins. IVst.

14.  Oxygen saturation of the blood 90 % is typical for:

A.  Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.  *Respiratory ins. I st.

C.  Respiratory ins. II st.

D.  Respiratory ins. III st.

E.  Respiratory ins. IVst.

15.  Inconstant perioral cyanosis is typical for:

A.  Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.  *Respiratory ins. I st.

C.  Respiratory ins. II st.

D.  Respiratory ins. III st.

E.  Respiratory ins. IVst.

16.  Level РСО2 40 mm Hg. is typical for:

A.  Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.  Respiratory ins. I st.

C.  Respiratory ins. II st.

D.  *Respiratory ins. III st.

E.  Respiratory ins. IVst.

17.  Mostly destructive pneumonia is caused by:

A.  pneumococci

B.  *staphylococci

C.  proteus

D.  klebsiella

E.  streptococci

18.  What type of oxygen therapy is the best for a child with the Respiratory ins. III st.?

A.  serve of oxygen through an oxygen pillow

B.  serve of oxygen in an oxygen tent

C.  serve of oxygen through a nasal catheter

D.  *serve of oxygen through an intubation tube

E.  serve of humidified oxygen through a mask

19.  What type of oxygen therapy is the best for a child with the Respiratory ins. II st.?

A.  serve of oxygen through an oxygen pillow

B.  serve of oxygen in an oxygen tent

C.  serve of oxygen through a nasal catheter

D.  serve of oxygen through an intubation tube

E.  *serve of oxygen through a mask

20.  What group of antibiotics is not used for pneumonia treatment at children of the early age?

A.  penicyllines

B.  *tetracyclin

C.  aminoglicosydes

D.  cefalosporines

E.  macrolides

21.  At mild pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:

A.  5 - 7 days

B.  3 - 5 days

C.  *7 - 10 days

D.  10 - 14 days

E.  15 - 18 days

22.  At moderate pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:

A.  5 - 7 days

B.  7 - 10 days

C.  *10 - 14 day

D.  14 - 20 days

E.  15 - 18 days

23.  At severe pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:

A.  7 - 10 days

B.  10 - 14 days

C.  *14 - 21 day

D.  21 - 24 days

E.  24 - 28 days

24.  For treatment of mild pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a dose:

A.  30 - 50 mg/kg/daily

B.  *50 - 80 mg/kg/daily

C.  80 - 100 mg/kg/daily

D.  100 - 150 mg/kg/daily

E.  150 - 200 mg/kg/daily

25.  For treatment of moderate pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a dose:

A.  30 - 50 mg/kg/daily

B.  50 - 80 mg/kg/daily

C.  *80 - 100 mg/kg/daily

D.  100 - 150 mg/kg/daily

E.  150 - 200 mg/kg/daily

26.  For treatment of severe pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a dose:

A.  30 - 50 mg/kg/daily

B.  50 - 80 mg/kg/daily

C.  80 - 100 mg/kg/daily

D.  100 - 150 mg/kg/daily

E.  *150 - 200 mg/kg/daily

27.  In definition of pneumonia is absent the following position:

A.  *it is an noninfectious disease of pulmonary parenchyma

B.  pneumonia is diagnosed at presence of respiratory disorders

C.  pneumonia is diagnosed at presence of tachypnea

D.  pneumonia is diagnosed at presence of infiltrative changes on x-ray

E.  pneumonia is diagnosed at presence of respiratory insufficiency

28.  Among the forms of pneumonia is absent:

A.  community acquired

B.  hospital

C.  *teenagers' pneumonia

D.  ventilator associated

E.  bronchopneumonia

29.  In classification of pneumonia forms is absent:

A.  pneumonia in children who have an immune deficit

B.  ventilator associated

C.  congenital pneumonia

D.  *extraschool

E.  hospital

30.  Hospital pneumonia is one that developed:

A.  during 6 hours being in the hospital

B.  during 12 hours being in the hospital

C.  during a 24 hours being in the hospital

D.  *during 48 hours being in the hospital

E.  during 56 hours being in the hospital

31.  Hospital pneumonia is one that developed:

A.  during 6 hours after discharge from the hospital

B.  during 12 hours after discharge from the hospital

C.  during a 24 hours after discharge from the hospital

D.  *during 48 hours after discharge from the hospital

E.  during 56 hours after discharge from the hospital

32.  Pulmonary complications of pneumonia don’t belong to:

A.  pleurisy

B.  pneumothorax

C.  pyopneumothorax

D.  *DIC syndrome

E.  abscess

33.  More often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from 6 months to 6 years is:

A.  chlamydia

B.  mycoplasm

C.  *pneumococcus

D.  staphylococcus

E.  E. coli

34.  More often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from 7 to 15 years is:

A.  streptococcus

B.  Listeria monocytogenes

C.  *pneumococcus

D.  hemophilus influenza

E.  E. coli

35.  What is the definition of tachypnea in children 2-12 mo:

A.  *>50 breaths/min

B.  >80

C.  >60

D.  >40

E.  >35

36.  What is the definition of tachypnea in children 1-5 ya:

A.  >50 breaths/min

B.  >80

C.  >60

D.  *>40

E.  >35

37.  To the most frequent etiological agents of hospital pneumonia does not belong:

A.  E. coli

B.  *pneumococcus

C.  proteus

D.  enterobacter

E.  virus

38.  Ventilator associated pneumonias (with less than four days of artificial ventilation), usually, are conditioned by:

A.  pneumococcus

B.  B. cereus

C.  *klebsiella

D.  enterobacter

E.  virus

39.  Pneumococci are absolutely non-sensitive to:

A.  penicillines

B.  *aminoglicozides

C.  macrolydes

D.  cephalosporin’s

E.  tetracycline’s

40.  Medicine of choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias is:

A.  *aminopenicillins

B.  carbapenems

C.  fluorquinolones

D.  antibiotics of other groups

E.  tetracycline’s

41.  To the antibiotics of the first choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias do not belong:

A.  amoxycillin

B.  macrolides

C.  *fluorquinolones

D.  inhibitor-protected penicillins

E.  carbapenems

42.  Positive effect of pneumonia treatment by antibiotic is all, except

A.  improvement of the general condition

B.  decrease of temperature below 38°C in 24 - 48 hours from the beginning of treatment

C.  *increase of dyspnea

D.  roentgenologic changes do not increase or even decrease

E.  decrease of dyspnea

43.  An absent effect of pneumonia treatment by antibiotic is all, except:

A.  fever remains

B.  *improvement of the general condition

C.  increase of pathological changes in the lungs

D.  increase of dyspnea and hypoxemia

E.  decrease of dyspnea and hypoxemia

44.  For the beginning of lobar pneumonia is not typical:

A.  headache

B.  normal or subfebrile temperature

C.  *poor consciousness

D.  cough with «ferruginous» sputum

E.  febrile temperature

45.  What symptom of pneumonia is typical only for one month old children?

A.  Cough

B.  Foamy excretions from a nose and mouth

C.  Dulling of percussion sound

D.  *Nod motions by a head

E.  Dissipated moist wheezes

46.  At what respiratory insufficiency stage is observed inconstant perioral cyanosis ?

A.  *At the firs

B.  At the second

C.  At the third

D.  At all stages

E.  Does not have the diagnostic value

47.  Beginning of lobar pneumonia reminds sometimes:

A.  attack of bronchial asthma

B.  rheumatism

C.  *acute appendicitis

D.  pyelonephritis

E.  gastritis

48.  ?More often the reason of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.  *Viral – bacterial flora

B.  Parasites

C.  Fungi’s

D.  Bacterial - fungi’s flora

E.  Viral – fungi’s flora

49.  The beginning of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.  *Catarrhal syndrome

B.  Allergic reactions

C.  Inspiration dyspnea

D.  Expiration dyspnea

E.  Tonsillitis

50.  At the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is prevailing:

A.  Intoxication

B.  *Cough

C.  Dyspnea

D.  Wheezing

E.  Tonsillitis

51.  Percussion during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.  Clear lung sound

B.  *Box sound

C.  Dullness of lung sound

D.  Dullness of lung sound in lower parts

E.  Dullness of lung sound in upper parts

52.  Auscultation during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.  Prolonged inspiration

B.  Decrease of breathing

C.  *Dry rales and moist diffuse rales

D.  Crepitation

E.  Local moist rales

53.  During the acute period of obstructive bronchitis on X-ray is present:

A.  *Perivascular and peribronhial infiltration, increasing of lung pattern and enlarged roots of lungs

B.  Particularly clear lung field

C.  Hyperinflation

D.  Occasional scattered areas of consolidation

E.  Local infiltration of lung tissue

54.  The main treatment of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.  Liquidation of viruses

B.  Desintoxication therapy

C.  * Normalization of drainage function of bronchus

D.  Rehydratation therapy

E.  Antibiotics

55.  The chest falls on inspiration and rises on expiration. What type of respiration is it?

A.  Kussmaul’s respiration

B.  *Paradoxical respiration

C.  Normal respiration

D.  Biot’s respiration

E.  Cheyne-Stokes respiration

56.  What type of respiratory movements is in children after 7 years?

A.  *Thoracic

B.  Abdominal

C.  Costal

D.  Sternly

E.  Diaphragmatic

57.  What is tachypnea?

A.  *The increase of the respiratory rate

B.  The distress during breathing

C.  The decrease of the respiratory rate

D.  The cessation of breathing

E.  The increase of the respiratory depth

58.  What is an average respiratory rate in 1-year old child?

A.  20

B.  *30

C.  18

D.  50

E.  60

59.  What is apnea?

A.  The increase of the respiratory rate

B.  The distress during breathing

C.  The decrease of the respiratory rate

D.  *The cessation of breathing

E.  The increase of the respiratory depth

60.  What is bradypnea?

A.  The increase of the respiratory rate

B.  The distress during breathing

C.  *The decrease of the respiratory rate

D.  The cessation of breathing

E.  The decrease of the respiratory depth

61.  What is an average respiratory rate in children after 12 years?

A.  22

B.  32

C.  *18

D.  25

E.  45

62.  What is usual ratio of breaths to heartbeats?

A.  1:1

B.  1:2

C.  1:3

D.  *1:4

E.  1:5

63.  What is an average respiratory rate in newborn?

A.  22

B.  30

C.  18

D.  *45

E.  64

64.  What main clinical features are useful in the diagnosis of bronchiolitis

A.  Paroxysmal cough

B.  *Wheezing

C.  Tachypnea

D.  Dyspnea

E.  Tension and flaring of the nostris

65.  What main X-ray features are useful in the diagnosis of acute bronchitis?

A.  *Perivascular and peribronhial infiltration

B.  Particularly clear lung field

C.  Hyperinflation

D.  Occasional scattered areas of consolidation

E.  Local infiltration of lung tissue

66.  What examination is most important in the case of bronchitis?

A.  Complete blood count

B.  Culture of sputum

C.  Culture of alveolar fluid

D.  Biochemical examination of the blood

E.  *Chest X-ray

67.  Bronchitis is caused most often by:

A.  Fungi

B.  *Viruses

C.  Bacteria

D.  Parasites

E.  Mixed flora

68.  All factors can lead to bronchitis, except:

A.  Cooling

B.  *Poor feeding

C.  Allergies

D.  Genetically predilection

E.  Bad ecology

69.  What sound is typical for obstructive bronchitis?

A.  *Clear pulmonary sound

B.  Box sound

C.  Local shortness of pulmonary sound

D.  Total shortness of pulmonary sound

E.  Mosaic sound

70.  Such auscultation picture may be determined at obstructive bronchitis, except:

A.  *Local decrease of vesicular breathing

B.  Increase vesicular breathing

C.  Rough breathing

D.  Puerile breathing

E.  Bronchus breathing

71.  What is the main feature of bronchiolitis?

A.  Puerile breathing

B.  Dry wrestling rales

C.  Course bubbling rales in lower parts of lungs