Exam 1
1.A starting address of 192.0.0.0 and an ending address of 223.255.255.255 is a member of which network class?
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class C
D.Class D
Answer: C
A Class C address falls within the 192.0.0.0223.255.255.255 range.
2.What IPv6 address is equivalent to APIPA IPv4 address?
A.global unicast address
B.link-local unicast address
C.unique local unicast address
D.Teredo address
Answer: B
In IPv6, systems that assign themselves an address automatically create a link-local unicast address, which is essentially the equivalent of an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address in IPv4. All link-local addresses have the same network identifier: a 10-bit FP of 11111110 010 followed by 54 zeroes, resulting in the following network address: fe80:0000:0000:0000/64.
3.Which zone enables a host to determine another host’s name based on its IP address?
A.standard primary zone
B.standard secondary zone
C.reverse-lookup zone
D.stub zone
Answer: C
Most queries sent to a DNS server are forward queries—that is, they request an IP address based on a DNS name.DNS also provides a reverse-lookup zone that enables a host to determine another host’s name based on its IP address.
4.You have a network address of 172.24.23.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many subnets can your organization use?
A.127
B.254
C.510
D.1022
Answer: B
Because the default subnet mask for a 172.24.23.0 network is 255.255.0.0, you use 8 bits to define subnets and the last 8 bits to define the host addresses.With 8 subnet bits, you take 2^8–2, which gives you 254 subnet addresses.
5.A ______is the process by which one DNS server sends a name resolution request to another DNS server.
A.rotation
B.registration request
C.cycle request
D.referral
Answer: D
DNS relies heavily on communication between servers, especially in the form of referrals.A referral is the process by which one DNS server sends a name resolution request to another DNS server.
6.What is the minimum forest functional level to support the Active Directory Recycle Bin?
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows Server 2003
C.Windows Server 2008
D.Windows Server 2008 R2
Answer: D
To support the Active Directory Recycle Bin, you must be using the Windows Server 2008 R2 functional level.
7.Which administrative model has local administrators at each site?
A.centralized
B.distributed
C.mixed
D.dispersed
Answer: B
In a distributed model, enterprise administrators delegate administrative tasks among IT staff members and senior non-IT personnel scattered around the enterprise.This model is most suitable for an organization with relatively large regional or branch offices that maintain their own IT staffs and their own servers and other network resources.The AD DS hierarchy might include multiple forest and/or domains. Task delegation to IT staffers is typically based on geography, but youmight delegate low-level tasks to non-IT personnel.
8.Which of the following statements are true regarding forest and domain functional levels?
A.After you upgrade to a higher forest functional level, you cannot go back.
B.You can upgrade a functional level only once.
C.You can downgrade a functional level only once.
D.You can upgrade or downgrade a functional level as needed.
Answer: A
By raising the functional level of a domain or a forest, you enable certain new AD DS features. To raise a functional level, all domain controllers involved must be running a certain Windows Server version or later. Since it actually changes the schema/defined format of objects, it cannot be undone once it has been upgraded.
9.Active Directory ______provide the means by which youcan control replication traffic.
A.services
B.sites
C.domains
D.forests
Answer: B
The strict definition of a site is an area of an AD DS network in which all domain controllers are well connected—that is, connected by a fast and reliable network link. The site topology is completely independent of forests and domain; you can have one domain that encompasses many sites or a single site that includes multiple domains.
10.The primary goal of inter-site replication is to minimize the usage of ______.
A.Active Directory
B.administrative labor
C.bandwidth
D.financial support
Answer: C
The primary goal of inter-site replication is to minimize bandwidth usage. Unlike intra-site replication, inter-site replication compresses data that is replicated between sites, thus reducing the amount of network traffic used by Active Directory replication.
11.What program do you use to manage your subnets used within your organization?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Active Directory Sites and Services
C.Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D.Group Policy Management console
Answer: B
To create additional sites and subnets, use the Active Directory Sites and Services console. Because the site infrastructure is separate from the forest and domain infrastructure, the only AD DS objects that appear in both the Active Directory Sites and Services console and the Active Directory Users and Computers console are those representing domain controllers.
12.What is a method of controlling settings across your network?
A.Group Policy
B.Active Directory
C.FSMO roles
D.MMC
Answer: A
Group Policy is a method of controlling settings across your network. Group Policy consists of user and computer settings on the Windows Server 2008/Windows Server 2003 family, Microsoft Windows 2000 family, Window Vista, and Microsoft Windows XP Professional platforms that can be implemented during computer startup and shutdown and user logon and logoff.
13.Which migration path do you use to upgrade an existing domain controller to Windows Server 2003 R2?
A.domain upgrade migration
B.domain restructure migration
C.upgrade-then-restructure migration
D.full migration
Answer: A
In a domain upgrade migration, you either upgrade an existing domain controller in your source domain to Windows Server 2008 R2 or install a new domain controller running Windows Server 2008 R2 into the domain. In this model, the process upgrades all objects in your source domain at the same time, leaving you with the same domain structure as before the migration. After the upgrade is complete, the target is created and the source ceases to exist.
14.What does AD FS perform for the user?
A.provides automatic encryption
B.creates a duplicate user account in the connecting domain
C.manages password on connecting domain
D.provides a single sign-on to the partner network
Answer: D
From the administrator’s perspective, AD FS enables each organization to maintain autonomy over its own user accounts and its own resources. From a user’s perspective, AD FS is invisible; a single logon provides access to both local network resources and those of the partner network.
15.What Windows service provides authentication services to users outside your organization without having to expose AD DS domain controllers to an insecure environment?
A.Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services
B.Active Directory Certificate Services
C.Active Directory Federation Services
D.Active Directory Rights Management Services
Answer: A
You can use AD LDS to provide authentication services to users outside the enterprise without having to expose AD DS domain controllers to an insecure environment.
16.To use the Active Directory Schema, what command do you need to execute to register the schema management library?
A.regedit schm.dll
B.regschema.msc
C.schema -enable
D.regsvr32 schmmgmt.dll
Answer: D
The Active Directory Schema console does not appear in the Administrative tools program group, nor does the Active Directory Schema snap-in appear by default in the Add Standalone Snap-in dialog box in Microsoft Management Console (MMC). Before you can add the snap-in, you must register the schema management library on your computer using the regsvr32 schmmgmt.dll command at a command prompt.
17.You have a corporate office and several branch offices. Where should you place the FMSO roles?
A.the corporate office
B.the largest branch site
C.the branch site with the fastest link
D.divided between the corporate office and the largest branch site
Answer: A
Flexible Single master Operations (FSMO), also known as operations masters, do not belong in branch offices except in cases where the branch office has its own domain or forest. For medium and small offices that represent only part of a larger domain, the operations masters should be located in the headquarters site, where IT staffers perform most of the domain administration tasks.
18.How do you promote a server to the domain controller that requires Domain Admins privileges on a remote site that does not have an Active Directory administrator?
A.You have to use SysPrep on the server.
B.You have to run the AdPrep /InstallRODC command on the server.
C.You have to stage an RODC installation.
D.You have to install the Remote installation tools.
Answer: C
RODC is short for Read-Only Domain Controller. If no one in the branch office hasadministrative credentials for the domain, Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2 provides the ability to stage an RODC installation. Staging an installation enables a domain administrator to create the necessary AD DS account for the RODC before the server is actually deployed.
19.Which mode of BranchCache caches the files on multiple workstations?
A.distributed cache mode
B.hosted cache mode
C.server mode
D.centralized mode
Answer: A
In distributed cache mode, each Windows 7 workstation on the branch office network caches data from the content server on its local drive and shares that cached data with other local workstations.
20.Which of the following is not a phase of the software life cycle?
A.planning
B.implementation
C.evaluation
D.removal
Answer: C
The four phases of the software life cycle are planning, implementation, maintenance, and removal.
21.Which product is designed for large enterprises and can be used to deploy applications as well as perform a wide variety of other network management tasks?
A.Microsoft Server Update Services
B.System Management Server
C.Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007
D.Microsoft System Center Essentials 2007
Answer: C
Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 is an application designed for large enterprises, to deploy applications as well as perform a wide variety of other network management tasks such asbaselining computers and keeping track of how oftenan application is used.
22.In IIS, what is a host for user-developed application code that is responsible for processing requests it receives from protocol listeners?
A.application pool
B.memory pool
C.worker process
D.server side pool
Answer: C
A worker process is a host for user-developed application code, which is responsible for processing requests it receives from protocol listeners—modules that wait for incoming client requests—and returning the results to the client.
23.With RDP, client connection requests arrive over whichTCP port?
A.3333
B.3303
C.3389
D.3339
Answer: C
TCP port 3389 is the well-known port number for the RDP protocol.
24.Which of the following is not a WSUS architecture configuration?
A.single WSUS server
B.replica WSUS servers
C.disconnected WSUS servers
D.PDC WSUS servers
Answer: D
The four basic Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) architecture configurations are as follows: single WSUS server, replica WSUS servers, autonomous WSUS servers, and disconnected WSUS servers.
25.How do you install WSUS with Windows Server 2003 R2?
A.Add it as a role using the Server Management console.
B.Download and install it from the Microsoft Download website.
C.Download and install it from the Windows Update site.
D.Install it from a DVD purchased from Microsoft.
Answer: B
WithWindows Server 2003 R2, WSUS was a separate (although free) program that you had to download and install manually.
26.From where can you synchronize a server that runs WSUS?
A.public Windows Update servers
B.another server running WSUS
C.manually configured content distribution point
D.all of the above
Answer: D
A server that runs WSUS can be synchronized from the public Windows Update servers, from another server running WSUS, or from a manually configured content distribution point.WSUS servers can download and store content locally, or they can use the content on the Windows Update website.
27.When SCCM determines a computer’s desired configuration, what does it compare to a client computer?
A.preset configuration
B.test configuration
C.configuration baseline
D.predefined configuration
Answer: C
Youcan download preconfigured baselines that conform to Microsoft best practices or build yourown by using Configuration Manager.
28.Which network is the most protected?
A.internal network
B.perimeter network
C.demilitarized zone
D.Internet
Answer: A
Most components of an enterprise network—infrastructure as well as clients and servers—must be protected from potential intruders on the Internet. Aninternal network is surrounded by firewalls, providing the maximum possible protection. However, some elements of the network also need to be accessible from the Internet or provide internal users with access to the Internet.
29.The driving factor behind combining administration of the Windows Firewall with IPSec policies is to streamline network administration on which type of computer?
A.Windows Server 2008
B.Windows Server 2003
C.Windows Vista
D.Windows 2000
Answer: A
The driving factor behind combining administration of the Windows Firewall with IPSec policies is to streamline network administration on a Windows Server 2008 computer.
30.Which VPN protocol is used over TCP port 443?
A.L2TP with IPSec
B.IKEv2
C.PPTP
D.SSTP
Answer: D
First introduced in Windows Server 2008 and supported only by clients running Windows Vista SP1 or later, Secure Sockets Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) encapsulates PPP traffic using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol supported by virtually all web servers. The advantage of this is that youdo not have to open an additional external firewall port in the server, becauseSSTP uses the same TCP port 443 as SSL.SSTP uses certificates for authentication, with the EAP-TLS authentication protocol, and in addition to data encryption, provides integrity checking and enhanced key negotiation services.
31.The NAP agent combines each Statement of Health Response into what?
A.System Statement of Health Response
B.System Statement of Health Requirement
C.Statement of Health Requirement
D.System Statement of Health Policy
Answer: A
The System Health Agents (SHAs) on the client computers monitor specific services and generates a Statement of Health (SoH) for the service it monitors and forwards it to the NAP Agent on the client computer. The NAP agent combines each Statement of Health to generate a System SoH. The NAP agent then transmits the System SoH to the NAP Health Policy Server. The NAP Health Policy Server evaluates the System SoH it receives from the client to determine if the client is compliant or not.
32.What volume type is essentially a method for combining the space from multiple dynamic disks into a single large volume?
A.simple
B.spanned
C.striped
D.RAID5
Answer: B
A spanned volume is essentially a method for combining the space from multiple dynamic disks into a single large volume. Windows Server 2008 writes to the spanned volume by filling all space on the first disk and then proceeds to fill each additional disk in turn.
33.What is the first step in designing a file-sharing strategy?
A.deciding how many shares to create and where to create them
B.determining usernames and passwords
C.deciding security measures
D.projecting anticipated storage needs and procuring appropriate server hardware and disk arrays
Answer: D
For the first step in designing a file-sharing strategy begins before you even install the server operating system,you need to project your anticipated storage needs and procure appropriate server hardware and disk arrays. When you are ready to begin configuring file sharing, you then decide how many shares to create and where to create them.
34.By default, what topology do replication groups use?
A.hub and spoke
B.full mesh
C.partial mesh
D.mesh/spoke
Answer: B
The larger the DFS deployment, the more complicated the replication process becomes. By default, replication groups use a full mesh topology, which means that every member in a group replicates with every other member. For relatively small DFS deployments, this solution is satisfactory, but the full mesh topology can generate a huge amount of network traffic on larger installations.
35.What enables you to protect specific types of information from unauthorized consumption and distribution, even by users who have the appropriate credentials and permissions to access the information?
A.Digital Rights Management
B.Digital Media Management
C.Digital Authenticity Management
D.Digital File Management
Answer: A
Digital Rights Management (DRM) enables you to protect specific types of information from unauthorized consumption and distribution, even by users who have the appropriate credentials and permissions to access the information.
36.What microchip used in laptop computers stores cryptographic information such as encryption keys?
A.Mobile Encryptor
B.SMB
C.FEC
D.TPM
Answer: D
In Windows 7 Ultimate and Enterprise editions, BitLocker Drive Encryption uses a computer’s built-in Trusted Platform Module (TPM) microchip to store cryptographic information, such as encryption keys.Information stored on the TPM can be more secure from external software attacks and physical theft. BitLocker Drive Encryption can use a TPM to validate the integrity of a computer’s boot manager and boot files at startup, and to guarantee that a computer’s hard disk has not been tampered with while the operating system was offline.
37.Which of the following can you not install on a server running Virtual Server 2005 R2 SP1?
A.Windows Server 2003
B.Windows Server 2003 R2
C.Windows NT
D.Windows Server 2008
Answer: D
Windows Server 2005 R2 can be installed on Windows Server 2003 (Standard, Enterprise, and Datacenter editions), Windows XP, and Windows Vista. Host machines running under Virtual Server 2005 R2 include the following 32-bit operating systems: Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2003 R2, Windows Server 2000, Windows NT Server 4.0, and Windows XP.
38.Which of the following is not a requirement to install the Hyper-V role in Windows?
A.An x64 version of Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2
B.64-bit processor and BIOs that support hardware-assisted virtualization
C.4 GB of memory
D.Hardware Data Execute Prevention