Practice Multiple Choice Questions for the Chemistry Final Exam 2012
1. One chemical property of matter is
a) boiling point. b) texture.
c) reactivity. d) density.
2. The state of matter in which a material has definite shape and definite volume is the
a) liquid state. b) solid state.
c) gaseous state. d) vaporous state.
3. Under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure, the particles in a gas are
a) closely packed. b) very far from each other.
c) held in fixed positions. d) able to slide past each other.
4. A horizontal row of elements in the periodic table is called a(n)
a) group. b) period.
c) family. d) octet.
5. Elements in a group in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a) atomic masses. b) atomic numbers.
c) numbers of neutrons. d) properties.
6. The symbol that represents the measured unit for volume is
a) mL. b) mg.
c) mm. d) cm.
7. A measure of the quantity of matter is
a) density. b) weight.
c) volume. d) mass.
8. To determine density, the quantities that must be measured are
a) mass and weight. b) volume and weight.
c) volume and concentration d) volume and mass.
9. The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/m3. The volume of a solid piece of aluminum is 1.50 cm3. Find its mass.
a) 1.50 g b) 1.80 g
c) 2.70 g d) 4.05 g
10. 1.06 L of water is equivalent to
a) 0.00106 mL. b) 10.6 mL.
c) 106 mL. d) 1060 mL.
11. Convert 25'C to the kelvin scale.
a) 323. K b) 248. K
c) 248. K d) 323. K
12. In oxides of nitrogen, such as N2O, NO, NO2, and N2O3, atoms combine in small wholenumber ratios. This evidence supports the law of
a) conservation of mass. b) multiple proportion.
c) definite composition. d) mass action.
13. Who was the schoolmaster who studied chemistry and proposed an atomic theory?
a) John Dalton b) Jons Berzehus
c) Robert Brown d) Dmitri Mendeleev
14. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atoms
a) of different elements b) can be divided into
combine in simple protons, neutrons, and
wholenumber ratios to form electrons.
compounds.
c) of all elements are identical d) can be destroyed in
in size and mass. chemical reactions.
15. The discovery of the electron resulted from experiments using
a) gold foil. b) cathode rays.
c) neutrons. d) alpha particles.
16. Who discovered the nucleus by bombarding gold foil with positively charged particles and noting that some particles were widely deflected?
a) Rutherford b) Dalton
c) Chadwick d) Bohr
17. Rutherford fired positively charged particles at metal foil and concluded that most of the mass of an atom was
a) in the electrons. b) concentrated in the nucleus.
c) evenly spread throughout d) in rings around the atom.
the atom
18. A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a) nuclide. b) neutron.
c) electron. d) isotope.
19. An atom is electrically neutral because
a) neutrons balance the b) nuclear forces stabilize the
protons and electrons. charges.
c) the numbers of protons and d) the numbers of protons and
electrons are equal neutrons are equal.
20. Atoms of the same element that have different masses are called
a) moles. b) isotopes.
c) nuclides. d) neutrons.
21. All atoms of the same element have the same
a) atomic mass. b) number of neutrons.
c) mass number. d) atomic number.
22. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass
number is
a) 13. b) 14.
c) 27. d) 40.
23. Carbon14 (atomic number 6), the radioactive nuclide used in dating fossils, has
a) 6 neutrons. b) 8 neutrons.
c) 10 neutrons. d) 14 neutrons.
24.The number of atoms in 1 mol of carbon is
a) 6.02 x 1022. b) 6.02 x 1023.
c) 5.02 x 1022. d) 5.02 x 1023.
25. Molar mass
a) is the mass in gram of one b) is numerically equal to the
mole of a substance. average atomic mass of the
element.
c) both a and b d) neither a nor b
26. A sample of tin (atomic mass 118.69 amu) contains 3.01 x 1023 atoms. The mass of the sample is
a) 3.01 b) 59.3 g.
c) 72.6 g. d) 11 g.
27. A bright line spectrum of an atom is caused by the energy released when electrons
a) jump to a higher energy b) fall to a lower energy level.
level.
c) absorb energy and jump to d) absorb energy and fall to a
a higher energy level. lower energy level.
28. For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,
a) energy must be released. b) energy must be absorbed.
c) radiation must be emitted d) the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.
29. The set of orbitals that are dumbbellshaped and directed along the x, y, and z axes are
called
a) d orbitals. b) p orbitals.
c) f orbitals. d) s orbitals.
30. The letter designations for the first four sublevels with the number of electrons that can be accommodated in each sublevel are
a) s:1, p:3, d:10, and f:14. b) s:1, p:3, d.5, and f 7.
c) s:2, p:6, d.10, and f 14. d) s:1, p:2, d: 3, and f 4.
31. Which of the following rules requires that each of the p orbitals at a particular energy level receive one electron before any of them can have two electrons?
a) Hund’s rule b) the Pauli exclusion principle
c) the Aufbau principle d) the quantum rule
32. What is the electron configuration for nitrogen, atomic number 7?
a) 1s2 2s2 2p3 b) 1s2 2s3 2p2
c) 1s2 2s3 2pl d) 1s2 2s2 2p2 3s1
33. Mendeleev predicted that the spaces in his periodic table represented
a) isotopes. b) radioactive elements.
c) permanent gaps. d) undiscovered elements.
34. The discovery of the noble gases changed Mendeleev's periodic table by adding a new
a) period. b) series.
c) group . d) sublevel block.
35. In the modern periodic table, elements are ordered according to
a) decreasing atomic mass. b) Mendeleev's original design.
c) increasing atomic number. d) the date of their discovery.
36. Krypton, atomic number 36, is the fourth element in Group 18. What is the atomic number of xenon, the fifth element in Group 18?
a) 54 b) 68
c) 72 d) 90
37. The electron configuration of aluminum, atomic number 13, is [Ne] 3s2 3pl. Aluminum is in period
a) 2. b) 3.
c) 6. d) 13.
38. Calcium, atomic number 20, has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s2. In what period is calcium?
a) Period 2 b) Period 4
c) Period 8 d) Period 20
39. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom’s
a) electron affinity. b) electron energy.
c) electronegativity. d) ionization energy.
40. A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons is called
a) electron affinity. b) electron configuration
c) electronegativity. d) ionization potential.
41. Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii
a) gradually decrease. b) gradually decrease, then
sharply increase.
c) gradually increase. d) gradually increase, then
sharply decrease.
42. The number of valence electrons in Group 17 elements is
a) 7. b) 8.
c) 17. d) equal to the period number.
43. The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called
a) dipoles. b) s electrons.
c) Lewis electrons. d) valence electrons.
44. The chemical bond formed when two atoms share electrons is called a(n)
a) ionic bond. b) orbital bond.
c) Lewis structure. d) covalent bond.
45. If the atoms that share electrons have an unequa1 attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
a) nonpolar. b) polar.
c) ionic. d) dipolar.
46. The electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s2 2s2 2p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy the octet rule?
a) 1 b) 3
c) 5 d) 8
47. A formula that shows the types and numbers of atoms combined in a single molecule is a(n)
a) molecular formula. b) ionic formula.
c) Lewis structure. d) covalent formula.
48. VSEPR theory is a model for predicting
a) the strength of metallic b) the shape of molecules.
bonds.
c) lattice energy values. d) ionization energy.
49. The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only polar molecule is
a) CCl4 b) CO2
c) NH3 d) CH4
50. How many atoms of fluorine are present in a molecule of carbon tetrafluoride, CF4?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 5
51. The formula for carbon dioxide, CO2, can represent
a) one molecule of carbon b) 1 mol of carbon dioxide
dioxide. molecules.
c) one molar mass of carbon dioxide d) all of the above.
52. What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?
a) AlSO4 b) Al2SO4
c) Al2(SO4)3 d) Al(SO4)3
53. Name the compound K2SO4.
a) potassium sulfate b) potassium sulfur tetroxide
c) potassium sulfide d) dipotassium sulfate
54. What is the metallic ion in copper(II) chloride?
a) Co2+ b) O2
c) Cu2+ d) Cl
55. Name the compound N2O4.
a) sodium tetroxide b) dinitrogen tetroxide
c) nitrous oxide d) binitrogen oxide
56. What is the formula for sulfur dichloride?
a) NaCl2 b) SCl2
c) S2Cl d) S2Cl2
57. The molar mass of MgI2 is
a) the sum of the masses of b) the sum of the masses of
1 mol of Mg and 2 mol of I. 1 mol of Mg and I mol of I.
c) the sum of the masses of d) impossible to calculate.
2 mol of Mg and 2 mol of I.
58. The molar mass of NO2 is 46.01 g/mol. How many moles of NO2 are present in 114.95 g?
a) 0.4003 mol b) 1.000 mol
c) 2.498 mol d) 114.95 mol
59. What is the percentage composition of CF4?
a) 20% C, 80% F b) 13.6% C, 86.4% F
c) 16.8% C, 83.2% F d) 81% C, 19% F
60. What is the empirical formula for a compound that is 43.6% phosphorus and 56.4% oxygen?
a) P3O7 b) PO3
c) P2O3 d) P2O5
61. The molecular formula for vitamin C is C6H8O6. What is the empirical formula?
a) CHO b) CH2O
c) C3H4O3 d) C2H4O2
62. A compound’s empirical formula is HO. If the formula mass is 34 amu, what is the molecular formula?
a) H2O b) H2O2
c) HO3 d) H2O3
63. In writing an equation that produces hydrogen gas, the correct representation of hydrogen gas is
a) H. b) 2H.
c) H2. d) OH.
64. Which equation is NOT balanced?
a) 2H2 + O2 à 2H2O b) Al + 3HCl à AlCl3 + H2
c) 2Mg + O2 à 2MgO d) CaCl2 + 2NaBr à CaBr2 + 2NaC
65. The reaction Mg(s) + 2HCI(aq) à H2(g) + MgCl2(aq) is a
a) composition reaction b) decomposition reaction.
c) singlereplacement reaction. d) doublereplacement reaction.
66. The reaction Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) à PbI2(S) + 2KNO3(aq) is a
a) doublereplacement reaction. b) synthesis reaction.
c) decomposition reaction. d) combustion reaction.
67. What is the balanced equation when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate?
a) Al + Cu2Sà A12S + Cu
b) 2Al + 3CuSO4 à Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu
c) Al + CuSO4 à AlSO4 + Cu
d) 2Al + Cu2SO4 4 A12SO4 + 2Cu
68. In the reaction N2 + 3H2à2NH3, what is the mole ratio of nitrogen to ammonia?
a) 1:1 b) 1:2
c) 1:3 d) 2:3
69. In the equation 2KClO3 à 2KCI + 3O2, how many moles of oxygen are produced when 3.0 mol of KClO3 decompose completely?
a) 1.0 mol b) 2.5 mol
c) 3.0 mol d) 4.5 mol
70. For the reaction 2HNO3 + Mg(OH)2 à Mg(NO3)2 + 2H2O, how many grams of magnesium nitrate are produced from 8.00 mol of nitric acid, HNO3?
a) 148 g b) 445 g
c) 593 g d) 818 g
71. For the reaction 3Fe + 4H2O à Fe3O4 + 4H2, how many moles of iron oxide are produced from 500 g of iron?
a) 1 mol b) 3 mol
c) 9 mol d) 12 mol
72. For the reaction SO3 + H2O à H2SO4, calculate the percent yield if 500. g of sulfur trioxide react with excess water to produce 575 g of sulfuric acid.
a) 82.7% b) 88.3%
c) 91.2% d) 93.9%
73. An ideal gas is an imaginary gas
a) not made of particles. b) that conforms to all of the
assumptions of the kinetic theory.
c) whose particles have zero d) made of motionless
mass. particles.
74. Which is an example of gas diffusion?
a) inflating a flat tire b) the perfume spreading through a room
c) a cylinder of oxygen stored d) gas escaping from a hole in a balloon
75. According to the kineticmolecular theory, how does a gas expand?
a) Its particles become larger. b) Collisions between particles become elastic.
c) Its temperature rises. d) Its particles move apart in straight lines
76. Which is an example of effusion?
a) air slowly escaping from a b) the aroma of a cooling pie
pinhole in a tire spreading across a room
c) helium dispersing into a d) oxygen and gasoline fumes
room after a balloon pops mixing in an automobile
carburetor
77. What does the constant bombardment of gas molecules against the inside walls of a container produce?
a) temperature b) density
c) pressure d) diffusion
78. Convert the pressure 0.75 atm to mm Hg.
a) 101.325 mm Hg b) 430 mm Hg
c) 570 mm Hg d) 760 mm Hg
79. Standard temperature is exactly
a) 100 C. b) 273 C.
c) 0 C. d) 0 K.
80. Standard pressure is exactly
a) 1 atm b) 760 atm.
c) 101.325 atm d) 101 atm.
81. Pressure and volume changes at a constant temperature can be calculated using