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Full SyllabusTest [AIPMT]
Time : 3 HoursMax. Marks: 720
Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.1. The Test consists of 180 questions.
2.For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test Code, Roll No. and Group Properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
3. There are three parts in the question paper I, II, III consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Biology having 45, 45 and 90 questions respectively of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
4.Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.2 for correct response of each question. 1Mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated.
5. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7.No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10.Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
PART - I / PHYSICS
1.A planet is revolving around the sun, which quantity associated with it will remain constant with time?
(A)Kinetic energy(B)Velocity(C)Speed(D)Areal velocity
2.In a transistor the base current is 40A, if current amplification in common emitter mode is 99, then the emitter current will be
(A)2 mA(B)4 mA(C)3.96 mA(D)1.96 mA
3.The intermolecular forces are
(A)Attractive only(B)Repulsive only
(C)Zero only(D)May be attractive, repulsive or zero
4.A metal cube is floating at the interface of two liquids of densities 13.6 × 103kg m–3and
1 × 103kg m–3in such a way that its half volume is in one liquid and other half is in second liquid. The density of the metal is
(A)14.6 × 103kg m–3(B)9.3 × 103kg m–3(C)7.3 × 103kg m–3(D)10.6 × 103kg m–3
5.An ideal fluid is flowing steadly as shown in figure. The value of v1must be
(A)1 ms–1(B)2 ms–1
(C)1.25 ms–1(D)1.4 ms–1
6.The temperature of a liquid falls to 50°C from 60°C in 10 minutes. The time interval in which its temperature falls to 30°C from 40°C will be (Given that temperature of surrounding is constant at 30°C)
(A)10 min(B)20 min(C)5 min(D)Infinity
7.The reflectance of a black body is r and its absorptance is a. The value
(A)1(B)Zero(C)Infinity(D)100
8.In which of the following processes internal energy reduces (P = pressure and V = volume)
(A)AB and BC(B)BC and CD
(C)CD and DA(D)BC and DA
9.When an ideal gas follows a law P + V = constant, then on increasing its volume, the internal energy
(A)First increases then decreases(B)First decreases then increases
(C)Decreases(D)Remain constant
10.The degree of freedom of a polyatomic gas molecule at high temperature if three modes of vibrations are associated with it will be
(A)6(B)12(C)16(D)9
11.A particle is executing SHM with time period 12s. The time taken by the particle to complete th oscillation by distance, starting from extreme position is
(A)8 s(B)7 s(C)9 s(D)3 s
12.A particle is executing SHM with frequency 50Hz. The frequency of magnitude of difference its kinetic energy and potential energy will be
(A)100 Hz(B)150 Hz(C)200 Hz(D)50 Hz
13.If nebe number density of electrons, nhbe number density of holes in a doped semiconductor, then
(A)(B)
(C)(D)Both (A) & (B) possible
14.Two waves of angular frequencies 314s–1and 329.7s–1superimpose in a medium. The number of beats heard per second is approximately
(A)15(B)7(C)5(D)16
15.If the percentage error in the measurement of mass of a spherical body is 2% and the percentage error in the measurement of radius is 1%, then maximum percentage error in the measurement of density will be
(A)3%(B)4%(C)5%(D)6%
16.The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given as (where x is in metres and t in seconds). The displacement of the particle in first 10 seconds will be
(A)40 m(B)30 m(C)–20 m(D)20 m
17.A particle is projected from ground such that is vertical displacement y is related with its horizontal displacement x as
(where x and y are in metres)
The horizontal range of the particle is
(A)100 m(B)57.8 m(C)86 m(D)173.2 m
18.A particle is moving in circular path of radius 100m such that its speed is decreasing at rate of
3 m/s every second. The angle between its velocity and acceleration when its speed is 20 m/s will be
(A)127°(B)143°(C)37°(D)53°
19.Two blocks are connected by a massless string as shown in figure. If a constant force F [more than ]is applied on m1 in vertically upward direction, then tension in the string is
(A)(B)
(C)(D)
20.The position of a body of mass 2 kg varies according to the relation . The work done on the body from t = 0 to t = 4s will be
(A)–64 J(B)Zero(C)–20 J(D)32 J
21.At what height above the earth surface the value of acceleration due to gravity reduces by 4% of its value on the earth’s surface (R = radius of the earth)
(A)(B)(C)(D)4R
22.A particle attached with a string is whirled in a vertical circle of radius R such that its speed at highest point is v. The speed at its lowest point will be
(A)(B)(C)(D)
23.A positively charged particle moving with velocity v is accelerated in a uniform electric field E for time t. If initial velocity in along the direction of the field, then its final velocity will be (q is charge of the particle and M is mass)
(A)(B)(C)(D)Zero
24.The dimensional formula of electrical resistance will be
(A)(B)(C)(D)
25.A gas is compressed adiabatically.
(A)Its internal energy decreases(B)Work done by gas is positive
(C)Its temperature increases(D)Its temperature decreases
26.In the situation shown in figure a particle having charge q0is moved from centre of dipole to a point having coordinates (r, 0). The work done will be
(A)(B)
(C)(D)
27.Three small metal spheres A, B and C are having charges q, 3q, q respectively. When A and C are placed at a certain distance apart the force of interaction between them is F. If B is touched with A and then removed then force of interaction between the same charges A and C will become
(A)2F(B)F/2(C)4F(D)3F/4
28.In the circuit shown in figure the direction of current in the galvanometer will be
(A)B to D(B)D to B
(C)Zero(D)First B to D then D to B
29.The temperature coefficient of resistivity of a metal is
2 × 10–6/C° and its resistivity at 300K is 0. If its temperature is increased to 527°C, then percentage change in its resistivity will be about
(A)1%(B)2%
(C)0.1%(D)0.05%
30.Three identical bulbs A, B and C connected by a source of emf as shown in figure. The power consumed by bulb A is p. If bulb C gets fused what will be the power consumed by the bulb
(A)(B)
(C)(D)
31.Which of the following is not a unit of magnetic intensity
(A)Oersted(B)A m–1
(C)wb m–2(D)All of there are the units of magnetic
32.A circular coil of radius r carrying current i is in xy plane such that its dipole moment is along z-axis. If there exists a uniform magnetic field along x-axis, then magnitude of torque acting on the loop will be
(A)Zero(B)(C)(D)
33.When temperature of a diamagnetic substance is increased, its susceptibility
(A)Increases(B)Decreases(C)Remains constant(D)Becomes zero
34.When a magnet is allowed to vibrate in a uniform magnetic field it oscillates with a time period T. If its magnetic moment is quadrupled and then allowed to oscillate in the same magnetic field then its new time period will be
(A)(B)(C)2T(D)4T
35.The magnetic flux (in webers) linked with a coil of resistance 10varies according to the relation (where t is in seconds). The current in the loop at t = 8s will be
(A)48 A(B)2.4 A(C)4.8 A(D)9.6 A
36.In the circuit shown in figure the reading of the voltmeter V4will be
(A)240 V(B)260 V
(C)500 V(D)The circuit is not possible
37.In an LCR circuit an inductor of inductance L = 2H, a capacitor of capacitance C = 0.5C and a resistor of resistance 10are connected in series. The quality factor of the circuit will be
(A)100(B)200(C)50 (D)
38.One face of a prism of refracting angle 30° is silver polished. If refractive index of the prism material is 1.414, then at what angle a ray must be incident on unfilmed face so that it may retrace its entire path after reflection from the silvered face
(A)30°(B)45°(C)90°(D)60°
39.Which of the following wavelength belongs to radio waves
(A)1 cm(B)10–4cm(C)10–3cm(D)10–8cm
40.For what distance the ray optics is a good approximation when aperture is 2mm wide and the wavelength used is 6000Å.
(A)6.67 m(B)9 m(C)1 m(D)0.9 m
41.An object is placed at a distance 40cm from a convex lens of focal length 28cm. The position and nature of image will be
(A)63.3 cm, Real(B)93.3 cm, Virtual(C)93.3 cm, Real(D)83.5 cm Real
42.When a mass of 1amu is converted in to energy, the energy released is
(A)511 KeV(B)1.022 MeV(C)931.5 MeV(D)Zero
43.When a potential difference of 100kV is used in a coolidge tube to accelerate electrons, the minimum wavelength in the emitted X-ray will be
(A)0.124 Å(B)0.62 Å(C)1.24 Å(D)124 Å
44.The radioactivity of a nuclei at 300K is x. Its radioactivity at 600K will be
(A)(B)(C)(D)x
45.When an electron makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom the wavelength of emitted photon is . The wavelength of the photon if it makes a transition from n = ∞to n =1 will be
(A)(B)(C)(D)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
PART - II / CHEMISTRY46.The ratio of number of atoms in 2.2g CO2and 1.7g NH3is
(A)(B)(C)(D)
47.200 ml HCl is mixed with 150 ml NaOH and the resulting solution is made upto 1 litre. The normality of the resulting solution is
(A)(B)(C)(D)
48.How many unpaired electrons are present in Ni and Ni2+respectively? (Z of Ni = 28)
(A)2, 2(B)2, 4(C)4, 2(D)Zero, 2
49.Which has highest bond energy?
(A)(B)O2(C)CO+(D)N2
50.How many spectral lines are obtained in visible region when electron jumps from n = 5 to n = 1 hydrogen atom?
(A)3(B)4(C)6(D)10
51.The correct order of bond energy of halogens is
(A)F2Cl2Br2I2(B)Cl2F2Br2I2(C)Cl2Br2F2I2(D)I2Br2Cl2F2
52.Which has highest value of vander waal’s constant ‘a’?
(A)O2(B)Cl2(C)NH3(D)PH3
53.Which is correct at equilibrium?
(A)Gsystem=0(B)STotal = 0(C)Hsystem=0(D)Both (A) and (B)
54.In which process maximum work done is observed?
(A)Isothermal reversible process(B)Isothermal irreversible process
(C)Adiabatic reversible process(D)Adia batic irreversible process
55.50 ml of HCl (pH = 1) is mixed with another 100ml of HCl (pH = 2) then pH of the resulting solution is
(A)1.8(B)1.2(C)1.4(D)1.6
56.Kspof PbSO4is 4 × 10–10M2. The solubility of PbSO4in 0.01 M H2SO4is
(A)2×10–5M(B)4×10–5M(C)4×10–8M(D)2×10–8M
57.How many peroxide linkages are present in K3CrO8?
(A)Zero(B)1(C)3(D)4
58.The normality of 20 volume H2O2is
(A)1.785(B)3.57(C)7.14(D)10
59.The most electropositive element is
(A)Li(B)Na(C)Sr(D)Ba
60.How many water of crystallisation is present in Borax?
(A)(B)2.6(C)8(D)10
61.Which is correct order regarding stability of oxidation state?
(A)Ge2+Ge4+(B)Sn2+Sn4+(C)Pb2+Pb4+(D)All of these
62.How many cyclic isomers are possible of molecular formula C4H6?
(A)2(B)3(C)4(D)5
63.Which molecule has highest dipole moment?
(A)(B)(C)(D)
64. A (Major),The compound ‘A’ is
(A)(B)(C)(D)
65.The most stable alkene is
(A)CH3– CH =CH –CH3(B)CH2=CH – CH =CH2
(C) CH2 = C(CH3)CH = CH2(D)CH3–CH2– CH =CH2
66.In the structure of CaF2, the co-ordination number of Ca2+and F–respectively are
(A)6, 6(B)8, 4(C)4, 8(D)8, 8
67.Which pair of compounds is expected to show similar colour in aqueous medium?
(A)FeCl2and CuCl2(B)VOC2and CuCl2(C)VOCl2and FeCl2(D)FeCl2and MnCl2
68.Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid salt?
(A)Butanol(B)Benzaldehyde(C)Phenol(D)Benzoic acid
69.What is obtained when chlorine is passed in boiling toluene and product is hydrolysed?
(A)o-cresol(B)p-cresol
(C)2, 4-dihydroxy toluene(D)Benzyl alcohol
70.An aqueous solution of CoCl2on addition of excess of concentrated HCl turns blue due to the formation of
(A)[Co(H2O)4Cl2](B)[Co(H2O)2Cl4]2–(C)[CoCl4]2–(D)[Co(H2O)2Cl2]
71.One gram of a monobasic acid when dissolved in 100g of water lowers the freezing point by 0.186°C. Now, 0.25g of the same acid are dissolved and titrated with 15.1mL of N/10 alkali. The degree of dissociation of the acid is Kf(H2O =1.86)
(A)1.66(B)0.66(C)0.11(D)0.060
72.The oxide which is the anhydride of ortho phosphoric acid is
(A)P4O10(B)P2O5(C)P4O6(D)P2O3
73.[Ag+] in saturated AgCl in the presence of 1M KCl [Ksp(AgCl) = 1 × 10–10] is
(A)1×10–5M(B)1×10–20M(C)1×10–10M(D)2×10–10M
74.Which of the following will not undergo Cannizzaro reaction on heating with an alkali solution?
(A)CCl3CHO(B)(CH3)3CCHO(C)HCHO(D)C6H5CHO
75.Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is
(A)MeCOCl(B)MeCHO(C)MeCOOMe(D)MeCOOCOMe
76.Phenol reacts with PCl5to give mainly
(A)p-chlorophenol(B)o-and p-chlorophenols
(C)chlorobenzene(D)triphenyl phosphate
77.An aromatic compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C8H10produces on nitration one mononitro derivative and three dinitro derivatives. Compound ‘X’ would be
(A)ethyl benzene(B)m-xylene(C)o-xylene(D)p-xylene
78.A solution of urea in water has a boiling point of 100.130°C. The freezing point of the same solution, (kfand kbfor water are 1.87°C and 0.520°C, respectively) is
(A)0.520°C(B)0.4675°C(C)–0.4675°C(D)–0.520°C
79.Which of the following compounds exhibits stereoisomerism?
(A)2-methylbutene-1(B)3-methylbutanoic acid
(C)3-methylbutyne-3(D)2-methylbutanoic acid
80.The composition of duration is
(A)Al–6%, Mg–94%(B)Cu–23%, Zn–56%, Mn–20%
(C)Cu–50%, Al–40%, Si–10%(D)Al–95%, Cu–4%, Mn–0.5%, Mg–0.5%
81.The ligand called acid, is
(A)CO(B)NH3(C)(D)ethylene diamine
82.Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound?
(A)Cis-platin(B)Ferrocene(C)Ziese’s salt(D)Grignard reagent
83.An organic compound of molecular formula C4H10O does not react with sodium. With excess of HI, it gives only one type of alkyl halide. The compound is
(A)ethoxyethane(B)2-methoxypropane(C)1-methoxypropane(D)1-butanol
84.Which of the following does not represent the correct order of properties indicated?
(A)NH3PH3AsH3(acidic character)
(B)Ni2+< Co2+< Fe2+< Mn2+(unpaired electrons)
(C)Al2O3< MgO < Na2O < K2O (bacis nature)
(D)Li < Be < B < C (IE1)
85.The time taken for 90% of a first order reaction to complete is approximately
(A)1.1 times that of half-life(B)2.2 times that of half-life
(C)3.3 times that of half-life(D)4.4 times that of half-life
86.Which one of the following reactions is not possible?
(A)Fe +H2SO4FeSO4+H2(B)Cu +2AgNO3Cu(NO3)2+2Ag
(C)2KBr +I22Kl +Br2(D)CuO+H2Cu +H2O
87.The resistance of a 0.1 N solution of acetic acid is 250when measured in a cell of cell constant 1.15cm–1. The equivalent conductance (in ohm–1cm2equiv–1) of
(A)46(B)9.2(C)18.4(D)2.3
88.An organic compound X on treatment with acidifed K2Cr2O7 gives compound Y which reacts with I2 and sodium carbonate to form triiodomethane. The compound X can be
(A)CH3OH(B)CH3CHO(C)CH3COCH3(D)CH3CH(OH)CH3
89.A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of -hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is
(A)acetaldehyde(B)Acetone(C)diethyl ketone(D)formaldehyde
90.By combing the two calcium salts of carboxylic acids, we are preparing 2-butanone. Find the correct pair of the following
(A)calcium formate + calcium propenoate(B)cacium acetate + calcium propanoate
(C)calcium acetate + calcium acetate(D)calcium formate + calcium acetate
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
PART - III / BIOLOGY91.A major disadvantage of external fertilization would be:
(A)Lack of synchrony between sexes
(B)Vulnerability of offspring to predators
(C)Decreased amount of variations in the population
(D)Limited number of offspring produced
92.What is true regarding wind pollinated plants?
(A)Pollens are sticky
(B)The stamens are hidden and stigma is small
(C)They often have many ovules in a single ovary
(D)Numerous flowers are packed into an inflorescence
93.Fertilization normally occurs in which part of the fallopian tube?
(A)Junction of ampulla and isthmus(B)Junction of fimbriae and infundibulum
(C)Junction of infundibulum and ampulla(D)Ampulla
94.Which of the following is not a cause for the rapid increase of Indian population today?
(A)A rapid decline in death rate
(B)An increase in the number of people in reproducible age
(C)An increase in the birth rate
(D)A decrease in infant mortality and maternal mortality rates
95.Find the incorrect statement regarding phenylketonuria:
(A)It is an inborn error of metabolism
(B)It is inherited as sex linked recessive trait
(C)The affected individual lacks enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine
(D)It results in mental retardation in affected individuals
96.During DNA replication, the energy for polymerization reaction is provided by:
(A)ATP(B)GTP
(C)Ribozyme(D)Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
97.Change of frequencies of alleles in a population or any deviation from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is interpreted as:
(A)Organic evolution(B)Genetic drift
(C)Saltation(D)Punctuated equilibrium
98.Malignant tertian malaria is caused by Plasmodium:
(A)vivax(B)Malariae(C)falciparum(D)ovale
99.The best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity in milk production is:
(A)Inbreeding(B)Out-crossing
(C)Cross-breeding(D)Inter-specific hybridization
100.Which stage of sewage treatment is biological treatment?
(A)Primary(B)Secondary(C)Tertiary(D)All
101.To see DNA, it is stained with:
(A)Ethidium bromide(B)Janus green(C)Acetocarmine(D)Methylene blue
102.ELISA is based on the principle of:
(A)Complementary base pairing(B)In vitro synthesis of polypeptides
(C)Cooperation between innate and acquired immunity
(D)Antigen-antibody interaction
103.The most efficient reproductive strategy for Oysters is that they:
(A)Breed only once in their life time
(B)Breed many times during their life time
(C)Produce a large number of small sized offspring
(D)Produce a small number of large sized offspring
104.The maximum per cent of global carbon content is found in:
(A)Oceans(B)Atmosphere(C)Rocks(D)Soil
105.The cause of the extinction of Stellar’s sea cow was:
(A)Habitat loss and fragmentation(B)Over-exploitation
(C)Alien species invasions(D)Co-extinctions
106.In India the AIR (prevention and control of pollution) Act came into force in:
(A)1975(B)1979(C)1981(D)1987
107.Which of the following is/are under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus?
(A)Anterior pituitary(B)Posterior pituitary(C)Both A and B(D)Pineal
108.In cochlea, the auditory receptors are:
(A)Organ of Corti(B)Ampulla(C)Macula(D)Hair cells
109.The type of joint between the carpal bones is:
(A)Ball and Socket(B)Hinge(C)Pivot(D)Gliding
110.The presence of which of the following is/are indicative of diabetes mellitus?
(A)Glucosuria and ketonuria(B)Glycosuria and hematuria
(C)Hematuria and ketonuria(D)None of these
111.Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about:
(A)10 %(B)30 %(C)50 %(D)70 %
112.The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is called as:
(A)Inspiratory capacity(B)Functional residual capacity
(C)Vital capacity(D)Total lung capacity
113.Trypsinogen can be activated by:
(A)HCl(B)Enterogastrone(C)Trypsin(D)Bicarbonate ions
114.The plant growth regulator used to induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes is:
(A)Auxin(B)Gibberellin(C)Cytokinin(D)Ethylene
115.The first reaction of glycolysis that leads to the formation of an ATP molecule is catalayzed by the enzyme:
(A)Phosphoglyceratekinase(B)Aldolase
(C)G3P dehydrogenase(D)Pyruvate kinase
116.The first product of the Calvin cycle is:
(A)PGA(B)OAA(C)RuBP(D)PEP
117.The mineral essential for water splitting reaction in photosynthesis is:
(A)Molybdenum(B)Copper(C)Zinc(D)Chlorine
118.Absorption of water by seeds is an example of:
(A)Active transport(B)Plasmolysis(C)Imbibition(D)Guttation
119.The homologous chromosomes separate in:
(A)Metaphase I(B)Anaphase I(C)Metaphase II(D)Anaphase II
120.Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of:
(A)Non-competitive inhibition(B)Competitive inhibition
(C)Antagonism(D)Synergism
121.The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia and flagella is referred to as:
(A)9 + 0(B)9 + 3(C)9 + 2(D)9 + 9
122.The first pair of the wings of cockroach arises from the:
(A)Prothorax(B)Mesothorax(C)Metathorax(D)Anal styles
123.In dicot stem, each vascular bundle is:
(A)Conjoint, open and with endarch protoxylem
(B)Conjoint, closed and with endarch protoxylem
(C)Conjoint, open and with exarch protoxylem
(D)Conjoint, closed and with exarch protoxylem
124.The type of aestivation seen in the flower of Cassia is:
(A)Valvate(B)Twisted(C)Imbricate(D)Vexillary
125.Inferior ovary is seen in:
(A)Disc florets of sunflower(B)Guava
(C)Plum(D)Mustard
126.Which of the following is an oviparous mammal?
(A)Balaenoptera(B)Ornithorhynchus(C)Macropus(D)Delphinus
127.Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum are all:
(A)Mosses(B)Liverworts(C)Pteridophytes(D)Gymnosperms
128.Morels and buffles are edible delicacies that belong to:
(A)Phycomycetes(B)Ascomycetes(C)Basidiomycetes(D)Dueteromycetes
129.When the heart suddenly stops beating, the condition is called as: