2010

Amphibious Operations WorkupCourse

1.What are amphibious operations designed to do?

  1. Prosecute further combat operations
  2. Obtain a site for advanced naval, land, or air base.
  3. Deny use of an area or facilities to the enemy
  4. Fix enemy forces and attention, providing opportunities for other combat operations
  5. All of these
  1. This principal type of amphibious operation involves establishing a force on a hostile or potentially hostile shore.
  2. Amphibious Withdrawal
  3. Amphibious Assault
  4. Amphibious Raid
  5. Amphibious Demonstration
  6. None of these
  1. An operation involving the extraction of forces by sea in naval ships or craft from a hostile or potentially hostile shore.
  2. Amphibious Withdrawal
  3. Amphibious Demonstration
  4. Amphibious Raid
  5. Amphibious Assault
  6. None of these
  1. Amphibious operations involve high-risk, high-payoff efforts to accomplish critical missions.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. During the highly vulnerable ship-to-shore movement phase what may success hinge on?
  2. The ability to get troops ashore quickly
  3. The ability to get troops off the beach quickly
  4. The ability to integrate both land-based and maritime air defense resources
  5. None of these
  1. Conducting landings from beyond enemy visual and radar range is a technique that minimizes the risk to assault shipping.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. This is a designated area in on a hostile or potentially hostile shore which, when seized and held, ensures the continuous landing of troops and materiel.
  2. Landing Zone
  3. Airhead
  4. Landing Area
  5. Beachhead
  6. None of these
  1. What types of craft are NOT used to get elements of MEU ashore?
  2. LCAC
  3. LPD
  4. Helicopters
  5. LCU
  6. All are used to get elements of the MEU ashore

  1. The United States maintains the second largest amphibious fleet in the world, second only to China.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. How many amphibious ships participated in Operation Desert Storm?
  2. 23
  3. 33
  4. 43
  5. 53
  1. In the three years following Desert Storm, how many times, on average, per year did the Marine Corps respond to crises in the world?
  2. Six
  3. Twelve
  4. Fifteen
  5. Twenty
  1. The current modernization of the fleet will provide amphibious lift for how many Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) equivalents?
  2. 2
  3. 2.5
  4. 3
  5. 3.5
  6. 5
  1. The lift parameters for amphibious operations are: vehicle square foot stowage, cargo cubic capacity, troop capacity, vertical take off and landing capacity, and LCAC capacity.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The original Marine Corps operating units were formed as security for embassies only.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The U.S. Navy published the first Manual concerning landing operations in what year?
  2. 1886
  3. 1918
  4. 1933
  5. 1950
  1. 1st LT Gilman wrote The Naval Brigade and Operations Ashore.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. What was the first manual to address doctrine for embarkation, ship-to-shore movement, naval gunfire, and air support and command relationships?
  2. The Naval Brigade and Operations Ashore
  3. Tentative Landing Operations Manual
  4. Landing Force and Small Arms Instruction Manual
  5. Landing Party Manual

  1. The amphibious assaults at Iwo Jima and Saipan are examples of which purpose of amphibious operations?
  2. Prosecute further combat operations.
  3. Obtain a site for an advanced naval, land, or air base.
  4. Deny the use of an area or facilities to the enemy.
  5. Fix enemy forces and attention, providing opportunities for other combat operations.
  1. The task organization formed for the purpose of conducting an amphibious operation is an Amphibious Task Force.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Which of these is NOT a limitation of the amphibious operation?
  2. Initial zero combat power ashore.
  3. Maintaining tactical integrity.
  4. Forcible entry capabilities
  5. Sensitivity to weather, seas, surf, and hydrographic conditions.
  1. An amphibious operation involving swift incursion into or a temporary occupation of an objective followed by a planned withdrawal is the definition of an
  2. Amphibious Assault
  3. Amphibious Demonstration
  4. Amphibious Raid
  5. Amphibious Withdrawal
  6. Nonconventional
  1. Which phase of an Amphibious Operation includes the final preparation of the objective area?
  2. Planning
  3. Embarkation
  4. Rehearsal
  5. Movement
  6. Assault
  1. Basic decisions are those decisions that must be made at the highest level within the ATF before detailed planning for an amphibious operation can proceed.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Psychological warfare is part of the supporting operations of an amphibious operation.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The commander of the ATF is the senior Marine officer in the Task force.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The Landing Force consists of the Battalion Landing Team and the Regimental Landing Team.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. During Operation Overlord, weather and hydrographic conditions were part of the decision as to when the assault would start.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Who selects the drop zones for an amphibious operation?
  2. CLF
  3. Air Commander(s)
  4. Airborne Commander(s)
  5. Both A and B
  6. All of these
  1. These are the largest amphibious ships, resembling small aircraft carriers.
  2. LPD
  3. LHA
  4. LHD
  5. None of these
  6. Both A and B
  1. Which of the following is the most important strength of an amphibious operation?
  2. Maximize the initiative and strike at the enemy’s weakest point.
  3. Units can be sustained through sea-based logistics for extended periods of time.
  4. The ability to assault a hostile beach and rapidly build up combat power ashore.
  5. Strategic mobility and flexibility.
  6. Forcible entry capabilities.
  1. Which officers should be in agreement before an amphibious operation is terminated?
  2. CLF
  3. CATF
  4. NEO
  5. Both A and B
  6. None of these
  1. How many factors are taken into account in the selection of landing areas?
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
  5. 7
  6. 8
  1. Landing craft take the landing forces and their supplies from the ship to the beachhead.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Amphibious Assault ships are capable of which of the following types of operations?
  2. V/STOL
  3. STOVL
  4. VTOL
  5. RW
  6. All of these
  1. In what year was the USS Iwo Jima first deployed?
  2. 2001
  3. 2002
  4. 2003
  5. 2004
  1. This class comprises the largest amphibious ships in the world.
  2. Austin
  3. Wasp
  4. Blue Ridge
  5. Tarawa
  1. What is the designation for the USS San Antonio?
  2. LPD 17
  3. LPD 18
  4. LPD 19
  5. LPD 20
  1. There are 4 officers and 24 enlisted personnel assigned to the PC.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Ships of this type, including the USS Blue Ridge and USS Mount Whitney act as flagships and provide command and control for fleet commanders.
  2. LPD
  3. LPH
  4. LCC
  5. LSD
  6. LHD
  1. This landing craft has both bow and stern ramps for on/offload at either end.
  2. LCAC
  3. LCM
  4. LCU
  5. AAV
  1. This landing craft is capable of 40+ knots and is used for high speed, over the beach amphibious landings.
  2. LCAC
  3. LCM
  4. LCU
  5. AAV
  1. The LCAC is capable of transporting a payload in what weight range?
  2. 40-50 tons
  3. 60-75 tons
  4. 80-90 tons
  5. None of these
  1. How long is a Mark V detachment ready for operations after arrival at a forward operating base?
  2. 12 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 36 hours
  5. 48 hours
  1. Which craft can operate in seas with winds as high as 45 knots?
  2. Mark V
  3. 11 Meter RIB
  4. Neither A nor B
  5. Both A and B
  1. What is the weight of the CRRC?
  2. 175 pounds
  3. 265 pounds
  4. 300 pounds
  5. None of these
  1. Which platform is powered by the IMARS?
  2. 11 Meter RIB
  3. CRRC
  4. Transportable Port Security Boat
  5. LCAC
  6. None of these
  1. What is the combat radius of an AV-8B on a close air support mission?
  2. 2100 nautical miles
  3. 163 nautical miles
  4. 454 nautical miles
  5. None of these
  1. Which of the AAVs listed below is designed to provide basic maintenance and recovery to smaller vehicles?
  2. AAVP7A1
  3. AAVC7A1
  4. AAVR7A1
  5. None of these
  1. Specific tasks of the AV-8B HARRIER II include
  2. Conduct close air support using conventional and specific weapons.
  3. Conduct deep air support, to include armed reconnaissance and air interdiction.
  4. Conduct offensive and defensive antiair warfare.
  5. Be able to operate and deliver ordnance at night and to operate under instrument flight conditions.
  6. All of these.
  7. What was the total number of AV-8B’s operated during Operation Desert Storm?
  8. 60
  9. 66
  10. 86
  11. None of these
  1. Boeing Aircraft Corporation builds the AV-8B.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. In what year was the CH-46 first produced for service with the Marine Corps?
  2. 1954
  3. 1964
  4. 1974
  5. 1984
  6. 1994

  1. Which service uses the HH-60 Jayhawk?
  2. US. Navy
  3. U.S. Coast Guard
  4. U.S. Marine Corps
  5. U.S. Army
  6. U.S. Air Force
  1. Which aircraft is scheduled to be replaced by the V-22 Osprey?
  2. CH-53D
  3. CH-46E
  4. Both A and B
  5. Neither A nor B
  1. The MK 12 gun uses a semi fixed round with a 64-pound warhead and a 28-pound shell case, which includes 15 pounds of powder.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The RAM uses components from which missiles?
  2. Sparrow and Stinger
  3. Sparrow and Sidewinder
  4. Stinger and Sidewinder
  5. Maverick and Stinger
  1. This weapon system was originally used on Air Force fighters during the Vietnam era.
  2. Rolling Airframe Missile
  3. Sea Sparrow
  4. Phalanx CIWS
  5. Mark 38 ~ 25MM Machine Gun System
  6. None of these
  1. Which platform does not carry a derivative of the Evolved Sea Sparrow or Sparrow missile?
  2. Aircraft Carriers
  3. Amphibious Assault Ships
  4. F-14
  5. B-2
  6. F/A – 18
  1. This weapon system provides ships with a “last chance” defense against anti-ship missiles and other threats that have penetrated other fleet defenses.
  2. Rolling Airframe Missile
  3. Sparrow Missile
  4. Phalanx Close-In Weapons System
  5. Mark 38 ~ 25MM Machine Gun
  1. This automatic weapon has a maximum range of 2.23 miles.
  2. M240G
  3. M60E3
  4. MK19
  5. M249
  1. The MK-19 was designed and procured as a replacement to the M-79 grenade launcher that was used in Vietnam.
  2. True
  3. False
  4. Which of these weapons has a magazine capacity of seven rounds?
  5. M9
  6. MK19
  7. MEU (SOC)
  8. MP5/MP5N
  1. What element is not part of the Command Task Group?
  2. Flagship for CATF and CLF
  3. Tactical Air Control Unit.
  4. Special Warfare Unit.
  5. Naval Beach Party Unit.
  6. All of these are part of the Command Task Group
  1. This group is activated to support assault landings and operations ashore.
  2. Screening Protection Group
  3. Mine Warfare Group
  4. Naval Gunfire Support Group
  5. Ship to Shore Control Group
  1. Which officer on the ATF staff is responsible for intelligence?
  2. N-1
  3. N-2
  4. N-3
  5. N-4
  6. N-5
  1. The designation N-6 is for which ATF staff officer?
  2. Combat Cargo Officer
  3. Combat Logistics/Material Officer
  4. Plans/Policies/Exercises Officer
  5. Tactical Air Officer
  6. None of these
  1. Which MAGTAF staff officer is responsible for supply, maintenance, transportation and medical and dental?
  2. G/S-1
  3. G/S-2
  4. G/S-3
  5. G/S-4
  1. Which of the following areas is NOT defined as a strategic chokepoint?
  2. Straits of Gibraltar
  3. Panama Canal
  4. GIUK Gap
  5. Gulf of Mexico
  1. "The Marine Corps...shall be organized as to include not less than 3 combat divisions and 3 aircraft wings,” is a quote from which piece of legislation?
  2. The National Security Act of 1947
  3. The Patriot Act of 1991
  4. The Navy Act of 1794
  5. None of these

  1. Which of these commands provides trained and qualified units and individuals to be available for active duty in time of war or national emergency?
  2. MARFORLANT
  3. MARFORPAC
  4. HQMC
  5. MARRES
  6. None of these
  1. The SPMAGTF is largest and most capable MAGTF.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The I MEF is headquartered at
  2. Camp Pendleton, California
  3. Camp Le Jeune, North Carolina
  4. Okinawa, Japan
  5. None of these
  1. This unit is the largest permanent organization of ground combat power in the Fleet Marine Force.
  2. MARDIV
  3. MAW
  4. MEF
  5. MEU
  1. In what year did the Secretary of Defense task military services to review their existing special operations capabilities and develop a plan for achieving a new level of special operations capability?
  2. 1981
  3. 1983
  4. 1991
  5. 1993
  1. Which of these elements is normally composed of assets from the Battalion Landing Team (BLT) STA platoon (sniper support) and coupled with elements of the RADBN Det, COMM Det, MLG Det, and CI/ITT assets from the MEU CE?
  2. Strike Element
  3. Covering Element
  4. Reconnaissance and Surveillance Element
  5. None of these
  1. How many AAVs are in an Amphibious Assault Vehicle Platoon?
  2. 4
  3. 10
  4. 12
  5. 15
  1. What types of aircraft does the ACE not utilize?
  2. AV-8B
  3. KC-130
  4. F/A-18
  5. CH-53
  6. AH-1W

  1. Which of the following operations is the MEU (SOC) capable of carrying out?
  2. Amphibious Operations
  3. Direct Action Operations
  4. MOOTW
  5. Supporting Operations
  6. All of these
  1. Which of the following is not something to do when talking on a radiotelephone?
  2. Listen before transmitting
  3. Speak clearly and distinctly.
  4. Use standard pronunciation
  5. Get very close to the microphone
  1. The number “zero” should be written with a slant bar through it so it is not confused with the letter “O”.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The proper way to end a transmission on a radio is OVER and OUT.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. The letter “O” is spoken as “Oh” in the phonetic alphabet.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. What is the proword meaning “I must pause for a few seconds”?
  2. Standby
  3. Wait
  4. Hold on
  5. Wait out
  1. Which of the following is a proword for an answer in the positive?
  2. Affirmative
  3. Roger
  4. Over
  5. Yes
  1. Raising the fist to the shoulder and thrusting it up and down several times is the signal for
  2. Rally
  3. Stop
  4. Double Time
  5. None of these
  1. Drawing the hand across the neck in a cutting motion from left to right is the hand signal for
  2. Freeze
  3. Map Check
  4. Danger Area
  5. None of these
  1. Which of these is not a patrolling formation with a hand signal illustrated in the workup book?
  2. Wedge
  3. Line
  4. Column
  5. Echelon
  6. What is a rapid, reflexive response executed by a small unit.
  7. Patrols
  8. Drills
  9. Skirmishes
  10. None of these
  1. Marlinspike seamanship is the art of handling and working with all kinds of line or rope.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Which of the following does marlinspike seamanship not include?
  2. Knotting
  3. Splicing
  4. Decorative work
  5. None of these are included in marlinspike seamanship
  6. All of these are included in marlinspike seamanship
  1. Yarns are twisted together to form line.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. This is the running or free end of a line. It is the end of the line that is worked with.
  2. Bitter End
  3. Standing Part
  4. Bight
  5. Turn
  1. Formed by crossing the bitter end over the standing part.
  2. Underhand Loop
  3. Overhand Loop
  4. Bight
  5. Round Turn
  1. If the line is encircling or wrapped about an object it is a round turn.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. Used to form eyes or secure a cord or line around an object such as a package.
  2. Knots
  3. Bends
  4. Hitches
  1. What is considered one of the most useful of knots?
  2. Bowline
  3. Square knot
  4. Clove Hitch
  5. Becket Bend
  1. Used to secure lines together.
  2. Hitches
  3. Knots
  4. Bends
  5. None of these
  1. This knot is also called the reef knot.
  2. Square Knot
  3. Bowline
  4. Beckett Bend
  5. Cove Hitch
  1. Overhand knots can be used to secure two lines of different sizes together.
  2. True
  3. False
  1. A figure eight knot is an example of a stopper knots.
  2. True
  3. False

Name: / SSN (last 4):
Date:
1 / A / B / C / D / E / 26 / A / B / C / D / E / 51 / A / B / C / D / E / 76 / A / B / C / D / E
2 / A / B / C / D / E / 27 / A / B / C / D / E / 52 / A / B / C / D / E / 77 / A / B / C / D / E
3 / A / B / C / D / E / 28 / A / B / C / D / E / 53 / A / B / C / D / E / 78 / A / B / C / D / E
4 / A / B / C / D / E / 29 / A / B / C / D / E / 54 / A / B / C / D / E / 79 / A / B / C / D / E
5 / A / B / C / D / E / 30 / A / B / C / D / E / 55 / A / B / C / D / E / 80 / A / B / C / D / E
6 / A / B / C / D / E / 31 / A / B / C / D / E / 56 / A / B / C / D / E / 81 / A / B / C / D / E
7 / A / B / C / D / E / 32 / A / B / C / D / E / 57 / A / B / C / D / E / 82 / A / B / C / D / E
8 / A / B / C / D / E / 33 / A / B / C / D / E / 58 / A / B / C / D / E / 83 / A / B / C / D / E
9 / A / B / C / D / E / 34 / A / B / C / D / E / 59 / A / B / C / D / E / 84 / A / B / C / D / E
10 / A / B / C / D / E / 35 / A / B / C / D / E / 60 / A / B / C / D / E / 85 / A / B / C / D / E
11 / A / B / C / D / E / 36 / A / B / C / D / E / 61 / A / B / C / D / E / 86 / A / B / C / D / E
12 / A / B / C / D / E / 37 / A / B / C / D / E / 62 / A / B / C / D / E / 87 / A / B / C / D / E
13 / A / B / C / D / E / 38 / A / B / C / D / E / 63 / A / B / C / D / E / 88 / A / B / C / D / E
14 / A / B / C / D / E / 39 / A / B / C / D / E / 64 / A / B / C / D / E / 89 / A / B / C / D / E
15 / A / B / C / D / E / 40 / A / B / C / D / E / 65 / A / B / C / D / E / 90 / A / B / C / D / E
16 / A / B / C / D / E / 41 / A / B / C / D / E / 66 / A / B / C / D / E / 91 / A / B / C / D / E
17 / A / B / C / D / E / 42 / A / B / C / D / E / 67 / A / B / C / D / E / 92 / A / B / C / D / E
18 / A / B / C / D / E / 43 / A / B / C / D / E / 68 / A / B / C / D / E / 93 / A / B / C / D / E
19 / A / B / C / D / E / 44 / A / B / C / D / E / 69 / A / B / C / D / E / 94 / A / B / C / D / E
20 / A / B / C / D / E / 45 / A / B / C / D / E / 70 / A / B / C / D / E / 95 / A / B / C / D / E
21 / A / B / C / D / E / 46 / A / B / C / D / E / 71 / A / B / C / D / E / 96 / A / B / C / D / E
22 / A / B / C / D / E / 47 / A / B / C / D / E / 72 / A / B / C / D / E / 97 / A / B / C / D / E
23 / A / B / C / D / E / 48 / A / B / C / D / E / 73 / A / B / C / D / E / 98 / A / B / C / D / E
24 / A / B / C / D / E / 49 / A / B / C / D / E / 74 / A / B / C / D / E / 99 / A / B / C / D / E
25 / A / B / C / D / E / 50 / A / B / C / D / E / 75 / A / B / C / D / E / 100 / A / B / C / D / E

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