Diagnostic Test Science GaHSGT

1. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth

and rough ER, and other parts. Based on

this information, it could NOT be

a. a cell from a pine tree.

b. a grasshopper cell.

c. a yeast (fungus) cell.

d. a bacterium.

2. Which are the four most abundant

elements in living cells?
a. carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur

b. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

c. carbon, oxygen, sulfur, phosphorus

d. carbon, sulfur, hydrogen, magnesium

3. What is the basic unit of structure and

function of living things?

a. cell

b. organ

c. molecule

d. organelle

4. Which of the following correctly matches an

organelle with its function?

a. mitochondrion . . . photosynthesis

b. vacuole . . . storage

c. ribosome . . . manufacture of lipids

d. lysosome . . . movement

5. The diagram below shows the same type of

molecule in area A and area B. With the

passage of time, some molecules move from

area A to area B. This movement is the result of

the process of

a. phagocytosis

b. pinocytosis

c. diffusion

d. active transport

6. Which of the following matches the

Macromoleculewith its correct building block?

  1. protein-nucleotide
  2. lipid-fatty acid
  3. nucleic acid-monosaccharide
  4. carbohydrate-amino acid

7. An animal cell is placed in a solution of distilled

water. If left overnight, this cell will

a. shrivel and die

b. swell and burst

c. undergo plasmolysis

d. remain the same since it has a cell

8. Which statement best describes active transport?

a. Molecules move very quickly across a

membrane.

b. Energy is expended to movemolecules across

a membrane.

c. Fewer molecules move across amembrane

than in diffusion.

d. Water molecules stream across a membrane

into a concentrated solution.

9. Mendel's discovery that characteristics are

inherited due to the transmission of hereditary

factors resulted from his

a. careful microscopic examinations ofgenes and

chromosomes

b. dissections to determine how fertilization

occurs in pea plants

c. breeding experiments with manygenerations of

fruit flies

d. analysis of the offspring producedfrom many

pea plant crosses

10.Homeostasis can best be defined as the

a. mature period of an organism’s life cycle

when little change occurs

b. maintenance of a relatively stable internal

environment

c. maintenance of a constant external

environment

d. period of no change in evolutionary

history

11. What does the process of photosynthesis

produce?
a. starch, which is metabolized intoless

complex molecules

b. protein, which is metabolized intoless

complex molecules

c. glycerol, which is metabolized intomore

complex carbohydrates

d. glucose, which is metabolized intomore

complex carbohydrates

12. In living plants, when does respiration occur?
a. only during digestion

b. only in the daytime

c. only in total darkness

d. all the time

13. Which diagram most correctly represents the

process of mitosis?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

14. How many chromosomes does a normal,

mature, human sperm cell contain?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 23

d. 46

15. Which nitrogenous bases make up DNA

nucleotides?
a. cytosine, adenine, guanine, and thymine

b. adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine

c. uracil, adenine, cytosine, andthymine

d. adenine, thymine, guanine, anduracil

16. A sudden change in the DNA of a chromosome

can usually be passed on to future generations if

the change occurs in a

a. skin cell

b. sex cell

c. liver cell

d. brain cell

17. In squirrels, the gene for gray fur (G) is dominant

over the gene for black fur (g). If 50% of a large

litter of squirrels are gray, the parental cross that

produced this litter was most likely

a. GG x Gg

b. GG x GG

c. Gg x gg

d. gg x gg

18. Flowers known as four o’clocks may

be red, white, or pink. The genes show

incomplete dominance. If a red and a white

gene are inherited, the flower is pink. If two red

genes are inherited, it will be red. If two white

genes are inherited, it will be white. What

happens if you cross two pink plants?

a. All of the offspring will be pink.

b. Half the offspring will be pink, one quarter

will be red, and the other quarter will be

white.

c. Half of the offspring will be red and the other

half will be white.

d. One-third of the offspring will be pink;

one-third red; and one-third white

.

19. Which is a biotic factor operating within an

ecosystem?

a. the type of climate in a given region

b. the carnivores that consume otheranimals

c. the amount of helium gas in the air

d. the rate of flow of water in a river

20. All the plants, animals, and protists living in a

forest make up a

a. population

b. community

c. species

d. ecosystem

21. Which of the following is correctlyorganized from

most to least inclusive?

a. biosphere, ecosystem, community,

population, individual

b. individual, population, community,

ecosystem, biosphere

c. ecosystem, community, population,

individual, biosphere

d. biosphere, ecosystem, population,

community, individual

22. What does the shape of the food pyramid

indicate about energy in an ecosystem?

a. most of the energy is stored in plantsat the

top of the pyramid.

b. most of the energy is stored in animals at the

base of the pyramid.

c. most of the energy is stored in animals at the

top of the pyramid.

d. most of the energy is stored in plantsat the

base of the pyramid.

23. What is the original source of energy for

ecosystems?

a. plants

b. the soil

c. the sun

d. water

24. A scorpion stalks, kills, and then eats a spider.

Based on its behavior, whichecological terms

describe the scorpion?

a. producer, herbivore, decomposer

b. producer, carnivore, heterotroph

c. predator, carnivore, consumer

d. predator, autotroph, herbivore

25. The sequence of energy flow through a food chain

is

a. primary consumers producers higher order

consumers.

b. producers higher order consumers primary

consumers.

c. higher order consumers primary consumers

producers.

d. *correct*producers primary consumers higherorder

consumers.

26. Certain bacteria living in a human's large

intestine help to produce vitamin K. This

relationship is an example of

a. animal parasitism

b. plant parasitism

c. commensalism

d. mutualism

27. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the trophic level that

would contain the largest biomasswould be the

a.producers.

b. primary consumers.

c. secondary consumers.

d. decomposers.

28. The diagram below represents a pyramid ofenergy in an ecosystem. Which level inthe pyramid would most likely contain members of the plant kingdom?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

29. Which statement best describes some organisms

in the food web shown below?

a. Minnows and fish are primary consumers.

b. Algae and floating plants are decomposers.

c. Aquatic crustaceans are omnivores.

d. Raccoons, fish, and ducks aresecondary

consumers.

30.Which food chain correctly lists the steps

according to energy flow?

  1. sun grass deer mountain lion
  2. mountain lion deer grass sun
  3. grass sun mountain lion deer
  4. deer mountain lion grass sun

31. A compound differs from a mixture in that a

compound always has a

a. homogeneous composition

b. maximum of two components

c. minimum of three components

d. heterogeneous composition

32.Four electron arrangements are given below.

Which is for a Group 3 element?

a. 2, 8, 5

b. 2, 8, 8, 2

c. 2

d. 2, 3

33. Compared to the charge and mass of a proton,

an electron has

a. the same charge and a smaller mass
b. the same charge and the same mass

c. an opposite charge and a smaller mass

d. an opposite charge and the same mass

34. When alpha particles are used to bombard gold

foil, most of the alpha particlespass through

undeflected. This result indicates that most of the

volume of a gold atom consists of ____.

a. deuterons

b. neutrons

c. protons

d. unoccupied space

35. Which symbols represent atoms that are

isotopes?

a. C-14 and N-14

b. O-16 and O-18

c. I-131 and I-131

d. Rn-222 and Ra-222

36. Which atom contains exactly 15 protons?

a. P-32

b. S-32

c. O-15

d. N-15

37. What is the mass number of an atom which

contains 28 protons, 28 electrons, and34

neutrons?

  1. 28
  2. 56
  3. 62
  4. 90

38. Which substance cannot be decomposed into

simpler substances?

a. ammonia

b. aluminum

c. methane

d. methanol

39. Which statement describes a chemical property?

a. Its crystals are a metallic gray.

b. It dissolves in alcohol.

c. It forms a violet-colored gas.

d. It reacts with hydrogen to form a gas.

40. Which set of elements contains a metalloid?

a. K, Mn, As, Ar

b. Li, Mg, Ca, Kr

c. Ba, Ag, Sn, Xe

d. Fr, F, O, Rn

41. Atoms of elements in a group on the Periodic

Table have similar chemical properties. This

similarity is most closely related to the atoms'

a. number of principal energy levels

b. number of valence electrons

c. atomic numbers

d. atomic masses

42. Which substance is the best conductor of

electricity?

a. nitrogen

b. neon

c. sulfur

d. silver

43. The nucleus of sodium-23 contains:

a. 23 protons and 11 neutrons

b. 23 protons and 11 electrons

c. 11 protons and 12 electrons

d. 11 protons and 12 neutrons

44. The mass number of an element is 19 and the

atomic number is 9. The totalnumber electrons

in the atom is:

a. 19

b. 9

c. 29

d. 10

45. The atom z has a mass number of 32. It contains

in its nucleus:

  1. 32 protons
  2. 32 protons and 32 electrons
  3. a total of 40 protons and neutrons
  4. 16 protons and 16 neutrons

46. In a solution the substance that does the

dissolving is called ___ .

a. soluble

b. the solute

c. the solvent

d. an ion

47. Many laboratory preparations of solutions call for

stirring the solvent while addingthe solute. Which

of the following is always an effect of this

procedure?

a. It decreases the reactivity of the solute.

b. It decreases the solubility of the solute.

c. It brings the solute and solvent rapidlyinto

contact.

d. It produces a chemical reaction.

48. A solution in which the crystallizing and

dissolving rates of the solute are equal is

a. saturated

b. unsaturated

c. concentrated

d. dilute

49. The half-life of the isotope carbon-11 is 20

minutes. Which conclusion can be madefrom

that statement?

a. any given amount of this isotope will

only last 40 minutes

b. due to its short half-life, all of the

carbon-11 on earth has disappeared

c. half of any amount of this isotope will

decay in 20 minutes

d. if broken in half, the half-life of each

piece of carbon-11 will be ten minutes

50. The half-life if iodine-131 is 8.07 days. How long

would it take a 28.4 gram sample to decay to

3.55 grams?

a. 8.07 days

b. 16.14 days

c. 24.21 days

d. 32.28 days

51. The greater the mass of an object,

a. the less force it can exert.

b. the more space it takes up.

c. the more balanced it is.

d. the greater the inertia.

52. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. How

much carbon-14 would remain after 11,460

years, if any?

a. none

b. one-eighth

c. one-fourth

d. one-half

53. When your cell phone rings, chemical energy is

transformed into electrical energy and then

a. sound energy

b. mechanical energy

c. heat energy

d. more chemical energy

54. Which substance has chemical properties similar to those of radioactive 235U?

  1. 235Pa
  2. 233Pa
  3. 233U
  4. 206Pb

55. A simple machine has an input force of 5

newtons and an output force of 100newtons.

What is the mechanical advantage of the

machine?

a. 0.2

b. 2

c. 20

d. 95

56. Heat transfer through space from our sun occurs

by

  1. conduction
  2. convection
  3. radiation
  4. insulation

57. Which phrase best describes the arrangement of

particles in a liquid?

  1. Close together and moving freely
  2. Very far apart and moving quickly
  3. Far apart and vibrating
  4. Close together and stationary

58. Which statement best describesthe energy

transformation thatoccurs when a log burns?

a. Mechanical energy changes to chemical

energy

b. Chemical energy changes to heat and light

energy

c. Heat and light energy changes to chemical

energy

d. Mechanical energy changes to heat and light

energy.

59. Which diagram below best represents refraction?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

60. As a satellite is accelerated away from the Earth

by a rocket, the satellite's mass

a. remains the same

b. decreases

c. increases

d. increases then decreases

61. A car passed a truck on the road. The car

accelerates from 20 meters/second to 24

meters/second in 2 seconds. What was the car’s

acceleration?

a. 2 meters/second/second

b. 4 meters/second/second

c. 12 meters/second/second

d. 22 meters/second/second

62. A baseball pitcher throws a fastball at 42 meters

per second. If the batter is 18meters from the

pitcher, approximately how much time does it

take for the ball toreach the batter?

a. 1.0 s

b. 2.3 s

c. 0.86 s

d. 0.43 s

63. The displacement-time graph below represents

the motion of a cart along a straight line. During

which interval is the cart NOT moving at constant

speed?

a. AB

b. BC

c. CD

d. DE

64. A vehicle travels a distance of 160 km in 5 hours.

The average speed is
a. 32 km/hr
b. 40 km/hr
c. 80 km/hr
d. 165 km/hr

65. What is an example of a longitudinal wave?

a. gamma ray

b. x-ray

c. sound wave

d. water wave

66. A characteristic common to sound waves and

light waves is that they

a. transfer energy

b. are longitudinal

c. travel in a vacuum

d. are transverse

67. In a 4.0-kilometer race, a runner completes the

first kilometer in 5.9 minutes, thesecond

kilometer in 6.2 minutes, the third kilometer in 6.3

minutes, and the final kilometer in 6.0 minutes.

The average speed of the runner for the race is

a. 0.16 km/min

b. 0.33 km/min

c. 12 km/min

d. 24 km/min

68. An object is dropped from rest and falls freely 20.

meters to Earth. When is the speed of the object

9.8 m/s?
a. during the entire first second of itsfall

b. at the end of its first second of fall
c. during its entire time of fall

d. after it has fallen 9.8 meters

69. The diagram below shows the lines of magnetic

force between two north magneticpoles. At

which point is the magnetic field strength

greatest?


a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

70. How far will a brick starting from rest fall freely in

3.0 seconds?

a. 15 m

  1. 29 m
  2. 44 m
  3. 88 m

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