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ANSWER KEY TO ENT QUESTIONS
- D – Boies p28054. A – Boies p506
- B – Boies p34255. B – Boies p522
- D – Boies pp345-34656. B – Boies p522
- D – Boies p47457. B – Boies p232
- B – Boies p28058. C – Boies p236
- B – Cummings p19559. A – Boies p179
- B – Cummings p19360. D – Boies p255
- C – Boies p47561. D – Boies p227
- A – Cummings p242562. D – Boies p226
- A – Caparas p19563. C – Boies p245. 336
- B – Boies p47864. B – Boies p530
- A – Paparella p240065. C – Boies p458
- C/D – Cummings p36666. B – Boies p212
- A – Cummings p1208 67. C – Cummings p268
- C – Boies p43168. D – Boies p218
- A – Boies p458 69. B – Mcquarie p712
- C – Boies p44870. B – Boies p321
- B – Boies p43471. C – Boies p386
- B – Boies p43072. C – Boies p393
- D – Boies p32773. A – Boies p461
- A – Cummings p99174. C – Boies 19
- A – Boies p14775. B – Cummings p1831
- C – Cummings p123476. D – Boies p390
- C – Boies p15177. B – Cummings p1847
- C – Boies p14378. D – Boies p407
- D – Cummings p174279. A – Boies p394
- C – Cummings p154580. C – Lee p830, 836
- C – Boies p44081. D – Boies p393
- C – Boies p53282. B – Boies p398
- C – Boies p53583. D – Boies p461
- C – Mcquarrie p67284. B – Boies p484
- A – Boies p53385. B – Boies p396
- C – Boies p52886. B – Boies p39
- A – Caparas p24087. C – Cummings 2645
- C – Caparas p23488. B – Boies p42
- D – Boies p52889. A – Boies p42
- A – Caparas p24090. A – Boies p39
- D – Boies p53591. A – Boies p140
- A – Boies p53592. B – Cummings p2708
- C – Boies p53593. C – Boies p134
- B – Caparas p24294. B – Boies p42
- B – Boies p53295. D – Boies p138
- C – Boies p52296. A – Boies p82
- B – Boies p51797. C – Boies p100
- C – Lee p965-96698. A/B/D – Boies p100
- A – Lee p92599. A – Boies p111
- C – Boies p510100. C – Boies p101
- A – Caparas p223
- D – Boies p510
- B – Caparas p216
- D – Boies p507
- A – Lee p960
- B – Caparas p224
EASTERN UNIVERSITY - Dr. NICANOR REYES MEDICAL FOUNDATION
Department of Otolaryngology - Head & Neck Surgery
Choose the best answer:
_____1. The phayrnx functions chiefly in:
a. Respiration and deglutition
b. Respiration, deglutition and voice resonance
c. Respiration, deglutition and voice production
d. Respiration, deglutition, articulation and voice resonance
_____2. Acute suppurative bacterial tonsillitis is most often caused by:
a. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, staphylococci, C. Diptheriae
b. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, H. Influenzae, Streptococcus viridans
- Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Klebsiella
- H. Influenzae, Staphylococcus, Fusiform bacilli
_____3. A 25y/o male consulted at the OPD due to dysphagia of 2 days
duration. PPE: (+) trismus, increased salivation, swelling of the left side of the soft palate extending to the anterior pillar, pushing the uvula across midline. What is your working diagnosis?
a. Acute tonsillitis
b. Acute pharyngitis
c. Acute tonsillophayngitis
d. Peritonsillar abscess
_____4. Most important point in the history of foreign body ingestion:
a. Demonstrate the absence of foreign body
b. Ask patient to bring a duplicate of foreign body
c. Rely on diagnostics
d. Believe the patient
_____5. The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is completed by:
a. Elevation of the soft palate
b. Cricopharyngeal sphincter relaxation
c. Laryngeal elevation
d. Closure of the laryngeal aperture
_____6. The antibiotic of choice for Streptoccoccus pharyngitis in a 7-year old boy with Sickle Cell Trait:
a. Clindamycin
b. Penicillin
c. Sulfamethoxazole
d. Metronidazole
_____7. A 20-year old sailor has a persistent sorethroat and is found to have a pharyngitis with enlarged tonsils and cervical adenophaty . Gram stain of pharyngeal secretions shows gram- negative diplococci. These findings support a diagnosis of:
a. Streptococcal pharyngitis
b. Gonococcal pharyngitis
c. Haemophilus influenza
d. Bacteroides pharyngitis
_____8. Majority of foreign body coins will be trapped in the:
a. Gastroesophageal constriction
b. Aortic and bronchial constriction in the esophagus
c. Cricopharyngeal constriction
d. Tonsils
_____9. A 50 y/o female presents clinically with globus hystericus. This is usually associated with a/an:
a. A normal PE and barium swallow
b. Lesion of the upper esophagus
c. Abnormal direct laryngoscopy
d. Stricture of the upper esophagus
_____10. The absence of this structure distinguishes the esophagus from the
the rest of the gastrointestinal tract:
a. Serosa
b. Muscular
c. Submucous
d. Mucosa
_____11. The tone and function of the esophagus is best evaluated by:
a. Plain x-rayc. Esophagoscopy
b. Cineradiographyd. Ct scan
_____12. Majority of ‘fish spine” foreign bodies will be lodged in the
a. Tonsilsc. Epiglottis
b. Valleculad. Tongue
_____13.Caustic substance ingestion can affect which stages(s) of swallowing:
a. Stage Ic. Stage III
b. Stage IId. Stage IV
_____14. What is the most common cause of deep neck infections in adults?
a. Odontogenic sourcesc. Surgical wound infection
b. Foreign bodiesd. Spread of superficial infections
_____ 15. An example of an indirect diagnostic test for neck masses:
a. Needle biopsyc. Ultrasound
b. Open biopsyd. Fine needle aspiration
_____16. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of the
paranasal sinuses. The most commonly affected paranasal sinus by this tumor is:
A. Maxillary sinusC. Frontal sinus
B. Ethmoid sinusD. Sphenoid sinus
_____17. Which of the following statements is true regarding basal cell CA:
A. Basal cell CA carries a worse prognosis
B. It does not cause extensive local destruction even if left untreated
C. It is the most common skin malignancy
D. It is more common in the lower lip
_____18. A surgical procedure used as a treatment for thyroglossal duct cyst which include the removal of the central portion of the hyoid bone to ensure complete removal of the cyst is known as:
A. Caldwell-luc procedureC. FESS
B. Sistrunk procedure D. Thyroidectomy
_____19. At what level of the neck can you palpate the superior deep jugular
lymph node?
A. Level IC. Level III
B. Level IID. Level IV
_____20. Whartin’s tumor is a relatively common benign salivary gland tumor
that usually occur among:
A. Baby boyC. Adolescent bachelor
B. Teenager schoolboyD. Adult male
_____21. How much of the actual total daily volume of salivary production comes from the parotid and submandibular glands?
a. 90%b. 50%
c. 30%d. 10%
_____22. Schirmer’s test is considered positive if the difference between the ipsilateral and contralateral results exceed a difference of:
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. Greater than 90%
_____23. A 30 year old female comes in with fever, pains in the right pre-auriculararea. On examination, you see a swollen, tender, erythematous
right parotid area. The orifice of the stensen’s duct is also swollenwith minimal purulent material coming out. What is the diagnosis?
a. Sialolithiasis
b. Chronic sialadenitis
c. Acute bacterial sialadenitis
d. Mumps
_____24. Sudden facial paralysis associated with vesicles in the external
audiotory canal andpinna:
a. Melkersson’s syndrome
b. Bell’s palsy
c. Ramsay hunt syndrome
d. Schwannoma
_____25. Which branch of the facial nerve is responsible for secretomotor function of submandibular gland?
a. Greater Superficial Petrosal Nerve
b. Stapedius
- Chorda tympani
- sphenopalatine
_____26. Primary neoplastic growth that metastasizes to the supraclavicular area may come from neoplasm involving the:
a. Tonsils
b. Maxilla
c. Tongue
d. Esophagus
_____27. A middle lower lip lesion would drain into the:
a. Submandibular node
b. Mentum of the mandible
c. Submental node
d. Floor of the mouth
_____28. A 54 y/o patient presented with a midline mass that moves with deglutition. Your primary diagnostic impression as to its nature
would be:
a. Thyroglossal duct cyst that manifested late in life
b. Thyroid nodule, probably benign
c. Thyroid malignancy
d. Inflammatory nodule
_____29. The second most common fracture in the face is:
a. nasal bone fractureb. Alveolar ridge fracture
c. Mandibular fractured. Zygomatic fracture
_____30. Blow-out fracture from a blunt object hitting the eye occurs at
a. The lamina papyracea, the thinnest bone in the body
b. The lacrimal bone
c. The floor of the orbit
d. The zygomatic bone, hence its propensity to be found
simultaneously with a tripod fracture
_____31.The best replacement fluid to use for hypovolemic shock is:
a. Lactated Ringer’s solution
b. Dextran Plasma Expander
c. Whole Blood
d. packed red blood cells transfusion
_____32.The best material for use in internal fixation for fracture is:
a. titanium plate
b. stainless steel plate
c. Glass
d. stainless steel wire
_____33. The best x-ray view to request for suspected nasal bone fracture is:
a. CT scan
b. Transorbital view
c. Soft tissue lateral view
d. AP view
_____34. The best x-ray view to request for a suspected zygomatic arch fracture
is:
a. Basal view of the skull
b. Modified towne’s view
c. Mayer’s view
d. Lateral view of the skull
_____35. To visualize the condylar neck of the mandible, one would request for
an x-ray projection:
a. Mandible lateral view
b. Mandible oblique view
c. Modified Towne’s view
d. Water’s view
_____36. A fracture of the body of the mandible is best visualized by:
a. Mandible AP view
b. MRI scan
c. Transorbital view
d. Mandible oblique view
_____37. Of the following, which fracture produces epistaxis?
a. Tripod fracture
b. Depressed zygomatic arch fracture
c. Alveolar ridge fracture
d. Mental fracture of mandible
_____38 Hypesthesia of the cheek due to inferior orbital rim fracture is due to
involvement of which nerve?
a. Supratrochlear nerve
b. Sphenopalatine ganglion
c. Greater palatine nerve
d. Inferior orbital nerve
_____39. Hypesthesia of the cheek is associated with:
a. Inferior orbital rim fracture c. Le fort I fracture
b. Depressed zygomatic arch fracture d. Nasal bone fracture
_____40. Which of the following is NOT associated with epistaxis?
a. Tripod fracture
b. Lefort II fracture
c. Depressed zygomatic archfracture
d. Blow-out fracture
_____41. “Tear- drop” sign on Water’s x-ray view is evidence for presence of :
a. Lacrimal bone fracturec. Frontal sinus fracture
b. Blow-out fracture d. Alveolar ridge fracture
_____42. The treatment of choice for alveolar ridge fracture is:
a. Titanium plating c. Barton’s bandaging
b. Interdental wiring d. Intermaxillary wiring
_____43. Procedure of choice for sagging double chin in 24 y/o female
a. Mentoplastyc. Submental lipectomy
b. Submental neck dissectiond. Submental liposuction
_____44. A scar that usually stays within the boundaries of the wound and
occur more frequently in areas of motion or skin tension
a. Keloidc. Unsightly scar
b. Hypertrophic scard. Trap door deformity
_____45. The blood supply of a free flap is derived from:
a. A neighboring artery in the recipient site
b. The capillaries in the recipient site
c. The arterial supply in the donor site
d. The capillaries in the donor site
_____46. Augmentation rhinoplasty maybe achieved by any of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Silicone injectionc. Bone graft
b. Silicon implantd. Cartilage graft
_____47. Undue wound tension is best avoided by ______.
a. Stretching the skin to reduce tension
b. Drainage of hematoma
c. Tissue undermining
- Proper choice of suture material
_____48. Injection of fat harvested from the same individual is called ______.
a. Autologous fat transferc. Heterologous fat transfer
b. Homologous fat transferd. None of the above
_____49. The most inert suture material
a. Chromic cutgutc. Polyglycolic acid
b. Plain catgutd. Nylon
_____50. Decreases rate of wound healing
a. Silver sulfadiazinec. Neomycin cream
b. Triamcinoloned. Penicillin G
_____51. To reduce local bleeding from the operative site in the face, it is a
common practice to mix lidocaine with ______.
a. Steroidsc. Normal saline solution
b. Sodium bicarbonated. Adrenaline
_____52. A graft derives its blood supply from ______.
a. Capillaries in the recipient site
b. Arterial supply in the donor site
c. A neighboring artery in the recipient site
d. Capillaries in the donor site
_____53. The best rate of take is from ______.
a. Full thickness skin graftc. Thin skin graft
b. Partial thickness skin graftd. Axial skin flap
_____54. The least contraction is exhibited by ______.
a. Full thickness skin graftc. Thin skin graft
b. Partial thickness skin graftd. Axial skin flap
_____55. A skin chemical peel aims to ______.
a. Remove scar c. Remove unwanted hair
b. Eliminate fine wrinkles d. Improve blood supply to the area
_____56. Procedure of choice for a 60y/o female with sagging double chin
a. Submental liposuction c. Submental neck dissection
b. Submental lipectomyd. Reduction mentoplasty
_____57. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of ______.
a. External carotid arteryc. Sphenopalatine artery
b. Internal carotid arteryd. Ethmoidal artery
_____58. This is considered the most common source of profuse epistaxis
especially in adult
a. Anterior ethmoidal arteryc. Sphenopalatine artery
b. Posterior ethmoidal arteryd. Greater palatine artery
_____59. Which of the following drains into the middle meatus?
a. Anterior ethmoidc. Sphenoid
b. Posterior ethmoidd. Nasolacrimal duct
_____60. Headache of sphenoid sinusitis is projected where?
a. Frontalc. Interorbital
b. Cheekd. Occipital
_____61. Nasal obstruction due to pregnancy and hormones are classified under
which type of rhinitis?
a. Structuralc. Allergic
b. Infectiousd. Vasomotor
_____62. Rhinitis medicamentosa is due to overuse of
a. Oral steroidsc. Oral decongestants
b. Local steroidsd. Local decongestants
_____63. Which condition usually presents as profuse epistaxis?
a. Lymphoepitheliomac. Juvenile angiofibroma
b. Inverting papillomad. Glioma
_____64. A sequela of untreated septal hematoma
a. Anosmiac. Impaired ciliary movement
b. Saddle nose d. Sinusitis
_____65. The most commonly involved site in malignancy of the nose and the
paranasal sinuses
a. Frontal sinusc. Maxillary sinus
b. Ethmoid sinusd. Nasal cavity
_____66. A 40 year-old male presents with nasal obstruction, blood-streaked
nasal discharge, impaired hearing on the right and a 2 X 2 cm hard, right infra-auricular mass. The most likely cause of the nasal obstruction is
a. Structural disorderc. Allergic rhinitis
b. Inflammatory disorderd. Vasomotor rhinitis
_____67. Cause of the immediate rhinitis symptoms in allergic rhinitis
a. Influx of eosinophilsc. Breakdown of mast cells
b. Influx of basophilsd. Breakdown of basophils
______68. Which of the following best describe a patient with allergic rhinitis?
a. Presence of purulent discharge with headache
b. Presence of watery nasal discharge with headache
c. Presence of purulent nasal discharge with obstruction
d. Presence of watery nasal discharge with obstruction
_____69. A coagulation disorder of the congenital type which may be a cause of
epistaxis and characterized by a prolongation of the prothrombin time and/or the PTT.
a. Hemophiliac. Liver failure
b. Vit K deficiencyd. Osler weber rendu disease
_____70. An autosomal dominantly inherited vascular anomally characterized by
abnormal subepithelial vessels, multiple cutaneous telangiectasia,
frequent epistaxis and gastro intestinal bleeding
a. Von willebrand’s diseaseb. Osler weber-rendu disease
c. Hemangiomatad. Hemophilia A
_____71. “Bowing” of the vocal cords on phonation is due to a non-functioning:
a. Posterior cricoarytenoid
b. Interarytenoid
c. Thyroarytenoid m.
d. Cricopharyngeal m.
_____72. Laryngomalacia is present due to a defect in which structure:
a. Thyroid cartilage
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Epiglottic cartilage
d. Tracheal cartilage
_____73. Laryngeal carcinoma with the best prognosis:
a. Glottic CA
b. Supraglottic CA
c. Subglottic CA
d. Transglottic CA
_____74. The best way to examine the larynx in the OPD is by:
a. Direct laryngoscopy
b. Palpation
c. Indirect laryngoscopy
d. Lateral neck x-rays
_____75. The sensory arm of the cough reflex is innervated by the:
a. Inferior laryngeal nerve
b. Superior laryngeal nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
- Mental nerve
_____76. Pitch of the voice is controlled by:
a. Pressure of the tracheal air column
b. Length of the vocal cords
c. Tension and bulk of the vocal cord
d. All of the above
____77. The structure mainly responsible for prevention of aspiration is:
A. TongueC. Epiglottis
B. Vocal cordsD. True vocal cords
_____78. Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis will result in:
A. Breathy voiceC. Good airway
B. Stridor in childrenD. All of the above
_____79. Congenital subglottic stenosis is defined as a subglottic diameter less
than
A. 4 mmC. 4 inches
B. 4 cmD. 4 feet
_____80. Bowing of the true vocal cords is caused by the paralysis of:
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscleC. Interarytenoid muscle
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscleD. Sternothyroid muscle
_____81. A 1 1/2 month-old baby girl was brought to your clinic because of
stridor. There was no associated cough. The patient was delivered to a G8P7 40 year old laundrywoman from payatas via NSD. Birthweight was 6.5lbs with APGAR score of 9 and 10. She was sent home after 2 days with no perinatal complications. She had a good suck with normal swallowing, good cry and weight gain. Stridor is slightly relieved by putting her in a supine position. T=37.2 C ; RR= 40/min.
Your initial impression is:
a. Congenital subglottic stenosis
b. Congenital laryngeal web
c. Laryngocoele
d. Laryngomalacia
e. Congenital cyst
_____82. A 6 year-old boy was brought in to the clinic because of cough
associated with moderate-grade fever and sorethroat characterized by painful swallowing few days PTC. The patient was sent home with antibiotics, cough syrup and antipyretics. The following day, patient was brought to the ER because of stridor associated with cyanosis. Patient was relieved by sitting up with mouth open and chin forward. He was restless and cyanotic with flaring of alae nasi, substernal and intercostal retractions. T=40C ; RR=36/min.
Your initial impression is:
a. Drug allergy
b. Acute epiglottitis
c. Acute subglottic laryngitis
d. Foreign body in laryngotracheobronchial tree
_____83. A 62 year old farmer from Iriga City came in because of dyspnea. His condition started 10 months PTC as hoarseness associated with hemoptysis. One month PTC, he developed persistent dyspnea accompanied by a lump on the right side of the neck. Patient is a chronic alcoholic and smoker. On PE, patient is obese, afebrile, and in respiratory distress.
Your initial impression is:
a. Chronic non-specific laryngitis
b. Pedunculated vocal cord polyp
c. Laryngeal papilloma
d. Laryngeal CA
______84. A 3 year-old girl was taken to the ER because of stridor and
cyanosis. Few hours PTC, patient was playing in the sala while her daddy was eating peanut while watching world meeting of families. The patient was restless with audible slap and palpable thud.
Your initial impression is:
a. Bronchial foreign body
b. Tracheal foreign body
c. Tracheomalacia
d. Esophageal foreign body
_____85. While on duty at the ER, a patient was brought in due to hoarseness and coughing out of blood. Patient was the driver of a car involved in a vehicular accident moments ago. From the history, you learned that unfortunately he was not wearing his seatbelt and was thrown forward on the steering wheel upon impact. Examination revealed a patient in moderate respiratory distress with stridor. Your most likely diagnosis is:
a. Laryngitisc. Aortic arch aneurysm
b. Laryngeal fractured. Laryngeal foreign body
______86. Deflection of the kinocillium away from the stereocilia results in
a. In6crease of discharge rate
b. Decrease of discharge rate
c. Increase then a decrease in discharge rate
d. Decrease then an increase in discharge rate
______87. The single most important test to request in cases of vertigo is
a. Dix-hallpike test
b. Posturography
c. Electronystagmography
d. Caloric stimulation
_____88. ENG(electronystagmography) works on the principle of voltage
difference between the
a. Cornea and eyelid
b. Cornea and retina
c. Right and left cornea
d. Right and left retina
_____89. In caloric stimulation a cold fluid is applied to the right ear. The
expected resulting nystagmus is
a. A slow phase to the right
b. A slow phase to the left
c. Clockwise
d. Counterclockwise
_____90. The utricle of the inner ear responds to
a. Linear acceleration
b. Angular acceleration
c. Cold water stimulation
d. Warm water stimulation
_____91. A round window fistula is best treated by
a. A flat graft to the round window
b. Simple observation and watchful waiting
c. Labyrinthectomy
d. Lazer welding of the leak
____92. Motion sickness is due to
a. Allergy and histamine
b. Visual and vestibular information mismatch