Nevada S Beef Quality Assurance Quiz

Nevada S Beef Quality Assurance Quiz

Nevada Beef Quality Assurance Certification Quiz

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CIRCLE CORRECT ANSWER

1) The mission a QA is to maximize consumer confidence and acceptance of beef, sheep, pork, and goat by focusing producers’ attention on daily production practices that influence safety, wholesomeness and quality of meat products. (pg. 2)
True (T) or False (F)

2) The past National Beef Quality Audits have revealed problems with: (pg 3)

A) Uniformity of size

B) Excess fat

C) Lack of marbling

D) Injection site lesions

E) All the above

3) When you keep records of antibiotic/vaccination treatments, what information should be recorded? (pg 6)

A) Product ID and lot number

B) Date treated

C) Animal ID or group lot ID

D) Person who treated the animal(s)

E) All the above

4) One specific set of production practices can be recommended for all cattle operations. (pg 8)

True (T) or False (F)

5) Which of the following statements are true, in terms of transporting cattle? (pg 10)

A) Smooth starts, gentle stops and smooth cornering decrease injury and stress to the animals.

B) Take into consideration wind chill and humidity factors.

C) Always observe the proper density and loading numbers for the trailer you are using.

D) All of the above

6) The Body Condition Score (BCS) of beef cows is related to many critical aspects of production. Which of the following statements are true of a cow that has a BCS below 5? (pg 11)

A) She will produce lower quality colostrums.

B) Her calf will more likely be slower to stand and nurse.

C) She will have more days to her first estrus following calving.

D) All of the above

7) Who can legally prescribe the use of any feed additive other than as directed on the product label. (pg 13)

A) Feed supplier

B) No one

C) Feedlot manager

D) Veterinarian

E) Both A and D

8) Livestock producers should inspect feed and feed ingredients for: (pg 12)

A) Unusual color, odor or mold

B) High temperature damage

C) Foreign matter

D) All of the above

9) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) established regulations in 1997 to prevent the establishment of Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) in the U.S. through feed. (pg 12)

True (T) or False (F)

10) Intramuscular and subcutaneous injections should be given in the: (pg 17)

A) Neck

B) Rib

C) Rump

D) Leg

E) None of the above

11) Optimum response to implants does not depend on sanitation and proper implanting techniques. (pg20)

True (T) or False (F)

12) A veterinarian/client/patient relationship means: (pg 15)

A) The veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of the animal and the need for medical treatment, and the client (owner or caretaker) has agreed to follow the instructions of the veterinarian.

B) There is sufficient knowledge of the animal by the veterinarian to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal.

C) The practicing veterinarian is readily available for follow-up in case of adverse reactions or failure of regimen of therapy.

D) All of the above.

13) On what part of the medication label will you find a withdrawal time listed? (pg 15)

A) Active Ingredient

B) Directions for use

C) Warning

D) None of the above

14) When administering injections to cattle, how often should the needle be changed? (pg 19)

A) After every pen of cattle

B) Only change the needle if it breaks

C) Once per hour

D) Every 10-15 uses

15) What is the maximum amount of product that should be put into any one intramuscular (IM) injection site? (pg 17)

A) 7 ccB) 20 cc

C) 10 ccD) 30 cc

16) The proper and recommended technique for giving subcutaneous (SQ) injections requires lifting a fold of skin with one hand, forming a “V” or “tent”. (pg 17)

True (T) or False (F)

17) When processing cattle, it is important to properly restrain the animals to prevent injury to the cattle and the handlers. (pg 23)

True (T) or False (F)

18) It is recommended that cattle be dehorned prior to what age? (pg 23)

A) 180 days of age

B) 365 days of age

C) 120 days of age

D) 7 days of age

19) Good vaccine management includes: (pg 23)

A) Keeping vaccine cool and shielded from UV light by storing it in a refrigerator and transporting in a cooler with ice packs.

B) Always keeping the vaccine cool while you process the cattle

C) Only mix enough modified live (ML) product to be used in one hour

D) Both A and C

E) All of the above

20) Castration of bull calves is recommended at any age. (pg 24)

True (T) or False (F)

21) There are a number of factors that influence tenderness. Which of the following play a role in determining tenderness? (pg 27)

A) Amount of marbling

B) Activity of enzymes that breakdown muscle proteins after slaughter

C) Amount of connective tissue

D) All of the above

22) Rough, careless handling causes more than 50% of all bruises on beef carcasses. (pg 31)

True (T) or False (F)

23) Uniformity and consistency of the final beef product remains one of the primary goals and challenges of the U.S. beef industry. (pg 38)

True (T) or False (F)

24) There are two major reasons that many commercial cow/calf operations use crossbreeding to increase production levels, what are they? (pg 41)

A) To combine the desirable characteristics of two or more breeds

B) To simplify their breeding program

C) To take advantage of heterosis (hybrid vigor)

D) Both A and C

E) All of the above

25) Biosecurity practices for a ranch or feedlot should include: (pg 43)

A) Vaccinating the herd against all endemic diseases.

B) Screening animals for suspected disease problems.

C) Isolating all sick animals into a designated hospital pen.

D) Keeping records of all disease occurrences and treatments

E) All of the above

Complete quiz or mail to:

Dr. David Thain

1664 N. Virginia St MS 202

UNR

Reno, NV 89557

775-784-1377