EMT Review Test 1

1.The tiny air sacs in the lungs are the:

Your answer:
alveoli
papillae
bronchi
microvilli

2.If the volume of the thoracic cavity increases, the pressure within the cavity:

Your answer:
at first increases, but then rapidly decreases
increases
stays the same
decreases

3.The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to:

Your answer:
clear the mouth
apply positive ventilation
open the airway
administer oxygen

4.Atmospheric air contains:

Your answer:
16 percent oxygen
10 percent oxygen
21 percent oxygen
25 percent oxygen

5.When at rest, the average adult will breath:

Your answer:
1000mL
4500mL
500mL
150mL

6.When providing initial ventilation to an infant, each breath should take ______to deliver.

Your answer:
1 to 1.5 seconds
4 to 4.5 seconds
3 to 3.5 seconds
2 to 2.5 seconds

7.Before beginning any resuscitative procedures with the laryngectomy patient, the EMT should first check for obstructions in the:

Your answer:
pharynx
larynx
nose and mouth
trachea

8.When using the mouth-to-stoma ventilation technique, repeat the ventilations once every:

Your answer:
5 to 6 seconds
10 seconds
2 seconds
second

9.For the chest-thrust maneuver, the hands are placed:

Your answer:
at the lower border of the rib cage
two to three fingers widths above the xiphoid process
directly over the xiphoid
directly over the clavicle

10.An EMT is trying to correct a complete airway obstruction in a conscious adult patient. The first maneuver is to deliver:

Your answer:
back blows
abdominal thrusts
finger sweeps
ventilations

11.The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are the:

Your answer:
red blood cells
albumins
white blood cells
platelets

12.Which of the following supplies chemical factors needed for blood clot formation?

Your answer:
fibrocytes
platelets
white blood cells
red blood cells

13.The transfer of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products to and from the cells takes place in the:

Your answer:
capillaries
arteries
venules
veins

14.As an EMT you see bright red blood spurting from a wound, this would be:

Your answer:
capillary bleeding
emboli bleeding
venous bleeding
arterial bleeding

15.Which is the best method of controlling external bleeding:

Your answer:
applying direct pressure
applying a tourniquet
applying pressure to a pressure point
applying a bandage

16.What pressure point would you use to control bleeding from the lower leg?

Your answer:
pedal artery
pelvic wings
brachial artery
femoral artery

17.A tourniquet is best applied when:

Your answer:
only as a last resort
when the blood from a wound is spurting
when the patient is going into shock
ordered by dispatch

18.What kind of shock can result from a bee sting?

Your answer:
cardiogenic shock
metabolic shock
septic shock
anaphylactic shock

19.What type of shock is caused when the patient has lost a large amount of blood?

Your answer:
anaphylactic
respiratory
hemorrhagic
septic

20.Which of the following is an indication of shock:

Your answer:
constricted pupils
dilated pupils
unequal pupils
color change of the eyes

21.A diabetic is found with a full, rapid pulse, cold clammy skin, and complains of hunger pangs. What is his condition?

Your answer:
hyperglycemia
anaphylactic shock
acute abdomen
hypoglycemia

22.If a patient presents with "acetone breath" what should you suspect?

Your answer:
ETOH
CVA
hyperglycemia
hypoglycemia

23.Care for the conscious patient in question 21, would be:

Your answer:
administer sugar
administer insulin
let the patient eat a Big Mac
administer sugar and insulin

24."Hardening of the arteries" caused by calcium deposits is called:

Your answer:
emphysema
chronic bronchitis
atherosclerosis
arteriosclerosis

25.The sharp pain occurring when a portion of the myocardium is not receiving enough oxygenated blood is:

Your answer:
dyspnea
ascites
angina pectoris
rales

26.When a thrombus breaks loose from a diseased artery and moves to occlude the flow of blood in a smaller artery, is called an:

Your answer:
arrhythmia
aneurysm
embolus
asytole

27.The proper dosage of syrup of ipecac to be given to a child under the age of 10 is:

Your answer:
2 tablespoons
2 teaspoons
1 teaspoon
1 tablespoon

28.The initial dose of ipecac and water may be repeated if the patient has not vomited in:

Your answer:
15 to 20 minutes
10 minutes
30 minutes
EMT's may not give additional doses

29.When a diabetic takes too much insulin, has reduced his sugar intake by not eating, or overexercised or exerted himself, the result is usually:

Your answer:
diabetic coma
insulin shock
insulin coma
diabetic shock

30.A commonly abused narcotic resulting in reduced pulse, lowered skin temperature, and constricting pupils is:

Your answer:
heroin
mescaline
cocaine
methaqualone

31.The anatomical region most commonly injured in the read-end impact is the:

Your answer:
pelvis
neck
head
chest

32.The pressure wave that accompanies a bullet as it travels through human tissue is called:

Your answer:
ballistics
trajectory
drag
cavitation

33.Which of the following would you expect to cause the greatest cavitation?

Your answer:
a handgun bullet
a rifle bullet
an ice pick
an arrow

34.Generally, powder burns and tattooing around the entrance wound suggest:

Your answer:
a handgun
a gun at close range
a high-powered rifle
use of black powder

35.Ecchymosis over the mastoid bone (characteristic of a basilar skull fracture) is called:

Your answer:
Battle's sign
islets of langerhans
raccoon eyes
Goblet's sign

36.The injury that damages the brain on the side opposite of the impact is called:

Your answer:
contercoup
subdural hematoma
subluxation
reversed effect

37.An early sign of increasing intracranial pressure is:

Your answer:
change in the level of consciousness
irregular respiratory patterns
bradypnea (slow respirations)
tachypnea (fast respirations)

38.During a trauma assessment you notice that a patient has no sensation below the lower border of the rib cage. This would suggest spinal pathology between which certebral areas?

Your answer:
C1 and C3
C3 and T4
T4 and T10
T10 and S1

39.The most distinctive sign of a frail chest is:

Your answer:
paradoxical chest wall movement
severe pain on inspiration
a widening pulse pressure
extreme hyperinflation of the chest

40.The presence of air within the chest cavity, but outside the lung, is called:

Your answer:
frail chest
pneumothorax
hemothorax
oxygen incompatibility

41.The problem caused when the sac surrounding the heart fills with fluid is called:

Your answer:
cerebral vascular accident
metabolic acidosis
cardiac rupture
pericardial tamponade

42.Which of the following fluids is most acidic?

Your answer:
beer, pH 3.0
coffee, pH 5.0
blood, pH 7.4
ammonia, pH 11.0

43.Solid organs include all of the following EXCEPT the:

Your answer:
stomach
spleen
kidneys
liver

44.In abdominal trauma, intravenous access should be established with:

Your answer:
one 18-gauge catheter
one, and possibly two, 14 or 16 gauge catheters
one 20 gauge catheter
any IV line possible, this is not a high priority

45.The mediastinal shift associated with tension pneumothorax results in:

Your answer:
both ventilatory and cardiovascular compromise
worsening of thoracis bleeding
cardiovascular compromise
ventilatory compromise

46.Decorticate posturing involves:

Your answer:
flexion of the upper and lower extremities
flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities
extension of the upper and lower extremities
extension of the upper extremities and flexion of the lower extremities

47.The two conditions that aggravate cerebral edema are:

Your answer:
hypotension and hypoxia
hypoxia and hypercarbia
hypotension and bradycardia
hypotension and hypercarbia

48.Blisters are associated with:

Your answer:
a fourth degree burn
a second degree burn
a first degree burn
a third degree burn

49.When sections of bone are crushed and fragmented, it is called:

Your answer:
a transverse fracture
a comminuted fracture
an impacted fracture
a greenstick fracture

50.Paralysis of one side of the body is called:

Your answer:
hemiplegia
paraplegia
paresis
quadriplegia

51.A last sign of tension pneumothorax is:

Your answer:
shifting of the trachea toward the affected side
shifting of the trachea away from the affected side
severe dyspnea
none of the above

52.In caring for a burn patient who is in need of fluid resuscitation, which of the solutions listed below should you use?

Your answer:
normal saline
1/2 normal saline
D50W
D5W

53.In attending to a burn patient, you find that he received burns to his left leg and thigh circumferentially, as well as to his genitalia. Using the rule of nines, what percentage of his body area is involved?

Your answer:
27 percent
10 percent
18 percent
19 percent

54.Fractures of the pelvis that involve the ring are often associated with blood lost of:

Your answer:
250 mL
500 mL
1000 mL
more than 2000 mL

55.The intravenous solution 1/2 normal saline is considered to be:

Your answer:
hypotonic
acidotic
hypertonic
isotonic

56.A solution that draws fluid from the cells into the vascular spaces when administered to a normally hydrated person is termed:

Your answer:
a colloid solution
an isotonic solution
a hypotonic solution
a hypertonic solution

57.Place in order of speed the following mechanism for acid-base balance. 1. The renal system 2. The buffer system 3. The respiratory system

Your answer:
2,3,1
1,3,2
1,2,3
3,2,1

58.When a red blood cell is placed into a (an) ______solution, it loses water to the surrounding solution and shrinks.

Your answer:
hypertonic
ultratonic
isotonic
hypotonic

59.All of the following are cations EXCEPT:

Your answer:
sodium
chloride
calcium
potassium

60.You have been instructed to establish an IV lifeline in an elderly female experiencing heart failure. The preferred IV solution and administration set for this patient would be:

Your answer:
normal saline (0.9 percent), macrodrip
lactated ringer's solution, macrodrip
whole blood, volutrol
5 percent dextrose in water, microdrip

61.A microdrip administration set generally delivers ______drops/mL

Your answer:
15
30
60
90

62.When it is desirable to administer a fluid that will rapidly move out of the intravascular space, you would select:

Your answer:
D50W
Lactated Ringer's solution
0.45% normal saline
0.9% normal saline

63.Which acid-base disturbance would you anticipate in a patient with a severe frail chest:

Your answer:
respiratory acidosis
metabolic acidosis
metabolic alkalosis
respiratory alkalosis

64.Depolarization of the ventricles is _____ of a normal ECG tracing.

Your answer:
indicated by the P-R interval
indicated by the P wave
indicated by the T wave
indicated by the QRS complex

65.The top of the heart is known as the:

Your answer:
base
pericardium
apex
arch

66.The thickest chamber of the heart is the:

Your answer:
right ventricle
left ventricle
right atria
left atria

67.Blood is pumped to the systemic circulation from which chamber?

Your answer:
left ventricle
right ventricle
left atria
right atria

68.Which of the following is the dominant pacemaker of the heart?

Your answer:
SA node
AV node
purkinje system
AV junction

69.The P wave of the normal EKG corresponds to which of the following phenomenon?

Your answer:
Atrila depolarization
S-A node firing
Atrial repolarization
Venticular depolorization

70.A pateint is found in asystole. The most appropriate and immediate intervention indicated is:

Your answer:
precordial thump
administer epinephrine
defibrillate at 200-300 joules
start CPR

71.Which of the following is the origin of the drug lidocaine?

Your answer:
plant
synthetic
animal
mineral

72.What is the study of drug action upon the body called?

Your answer:
pharmacokinetics
synergism
pharmacology
pharmacodynamics

73.Drug removal from the vascular system is done by the ______.

Your answer:
kidneys
liver
lungs and intestinal tract
all of the above

74.The unique characteristics of a drug on an individual is called:

Your answer:
synergism
cumulative
refractory
idiosyncracy

75.In most cases drugs used in the field are for:

Your answer:
unconscious states
hemosynamic emergencies
allergic reactions
cardiovascular emergencies

76.______is the combined action of two drugs. It is much stronger that the effects of either one.

Your answer:
synegism
hypersensitivity
untoward reaction
idiosyncrasy

77.What drug blocks the action of the sympathetic nervous system?

Your answer:
dopaminerolytic
vagalytic
sympatholytic
parasympathomimetic

78.Which drug in the following list can be given via the ET tube?

Your answer:
atropine
naloxone
epinephrine
all of the above

79.Place the following metric prefixes in order from smallest to largest. 1. deci 2. milli 3. micro, 4. kilo 5. centi

Your answer:
5,3,4,2,1
3,2,5,1,4
2,5,3,4,1
2,3,5,1,4

80.The name Narcan is an example of which of the following?

Your answer:
official name
chemical name
beneric name
trade name

81.The second stage of labor begins when the:

Your answer:
amniotic sac ruptures
placenta delivers
baby moves into the birth canal
cervix starts to dilate

82.Spontaneous respirations should begin within ______after delivery.

Your answer:
45 seconds
30 seconds
2 minutes
1 minute

83.The muscular organ that protects the fetus is called the:

Your answer:
uterus
fundus
unbilicus
placenta

84.A premature baby is one that is less than 5.5 lbs or is born before the _____ month.

Your answer:
8th
7th
9th
6th

85.An APGAR score of 0 to 3 represents ______distress.

Your answer:
moderate
mild
no
severe

86.When the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery it is called:

Your answer:
abruptio placenta
endometriosis
post partum hemorrage
placenta previa

87.In an ectopic pregnancy, the:

Your answer:
egg is not implanted at all
uterus does not expand adequately to hold the fetus
uterus does not have sufficient nutrients to sustain pregnancy
egg is implanted outside the uterus

88.Normal headfirst birth is called ______delivery.

Your answer:
ectopic
prolapsed
cephalic
breech

89.To assist in delivering the baby's upper shoulder, you should:

Your answer:
support the baby's head
pull on the baby's head
guide the baby's head upward
guide the baby's head downward

90.The first clamp placed on the umbilical cord should be ______inches from the baby.

Your answer:
12
5
10
2

91.Uncontrolled diabetes may lead to:

Your answer:
metabolic shock
neurogenic shock
anaphylactic shock
psychogenic shock

92.An example of psychogenic shock is:

Your answer:
a stroke
simple fainting
paranoia
spinal shock

93.Respiratory shock is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

Your answer:
severe blood loss
chest trauma
spinal injury
airway obstruction

94.An early indicator of shock may be:

Your answer:
dry skin
constricted pupils
decrease in pulse
restlessness and anxiety

95.Hypovolemic shock in an adult may result from a loss of:

Your answer:
2 cups of blood
1 pint of blood
2 units of blood
500 cc of blood

96.The vital signs of a patient in shock should ideally be checked:

Your answer:
every 20 minutes
every 15 minutes
every 5 minutes
every 10 minutes

97.An absolute contraindication for the use of MAST would be:

Your answer:
pregnancy
pulmonary edema
evisceration
an impaled object

98.Which of the following fractures would be expected to account for the greatest blood loss?

Your answer:
humerus
pelvis
facial
femur

99.Which of the following steps in emergency care should be taken first:

Your answer:
treat for shock
open and maintain an airway
control severe bleeding
re-establish circulation

100.Treatment for shock would include:

Answers: EMT Review Test 1

  1. The tiny air sacs in the lungs are the:
    Your answer: alveoli
    CORRECT!
  2. If the volume of the thoracic cavity increases, the pressure within the cavity:
    Your answer: decreases
    CORRECT!
  3. The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to:
    Your answer: open the airway
    CORRECT!
  4. Atmospheric air contains:
    Your answer: 21 percent oxygen
    CORRECT!
  5. When at rest, the average adult will breath:
    Your answer: 500mL
    CORRECT!
  6. When providing initial ventilation to an infant, each breath should take ______to deliver.
    Your answer: 1 to 1.5 seconds
    CORRECT!
  7. Before beginning any resuscitative procedures with the laryngectomy patient, the EMT should first check for obstructions in the:
    Your answer: trachea
    CORRECT!
  8. When using the mouth-to-stoma ventilation technique, repeat the ventilations once every:
    Your answer: 5 to 6 seconds
    CORRECT!
  9. For the chest-thrust maneuver, the hands are placed:
    Your answer: two to three fingers widths above the xiphoid process
    CORRECT!
  10. An EMT is trying to correct a complete airway obstruction in a conscious adult patient. The first maneuver is to deliver:
    Your answer: abdominal thrusts
    CORRECT!
  11. The formed elements in the blood that carry oxygen are the:
    Your answer: red blood cells
    CORRECT!
  12. Which of the following supplies chemical factors needed for blood clot formation?
    Your answer: platelets
    CORRECT!
  13. The transfer of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products to and from the cells takes place in the:
    Your answer: capillaries
    CORRECT!
  14. As an EMT you see bright red blood spurting from a wound, this would be:
    Your answer: arterial bleeding
    CORRECT!
  15. Which is the best method of controlling external bleeding:
    Your answer: applying direct pressure
    CORRECT!
  16. What pressure point would you use to control bleeding from the lower leg?
    Your answer: femoral artery
    CORRECT!
  17. A tourniquet is best applied when: