100 Multiple Choice

OPEN BOOK QUESTIONS

Name ______

100 MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Whole Foods Market makes extensive use of what type of teams?

a. / self-directed
b. / cross-functional
c. / quality
d. / work group

2. Work groups place a strong emphasis on:

a. / shared leadership
b. / mutual accountability
c. / products that require collective work
d. / individual accountability

3. A group is a collection of two or more persons with common interests or objectives, whereas a team:

a. / consists of two or more persons who are loosely tied together, yet each member works independently
b. / may be dozens of people who are quickly assembled to perform a task that may only take a few minutes
c. / has several persons but the performance or contribution of any particular member is inconsequential for the team's output
d. / is usually a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common goal for which they are mutually accountable

4. The behavioral norms expected within work groups and considered to be among the most important from the organization's perspective are known as:

a. / visions
b. / organizational culture and credos
c. / group cohesion
d. / groupthink

5. Which of the following statements regarding group cohesion is NOT accurate?

a. / Group cohesion can enhance job satisfaction for members.
b. / Group cohesion can enhance organizational productivity.
c. / Highly cohesive groups tend to have higher interpersonal exchanges away from the workplace.
d. / Highly cohesive groups are better able to control and manager their membership better than work groups low in cohesion.

6. A method for countering social loafing includes:

a. / motivational training
b. / formal evaluation of member contributions
c. / emphasizing task functions
d. / setting clear group goals

7. People may engage in immoral acts or even violent behavior as committed members of their group when:

a. / group cohesion declines
b. / social loafing is emphasized
c. / there is a loss of individuality
d. / there is not a norm for moral behavior

8. According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed as part of a groups authority issues?

a. / who is in charge, management of power and influence, and security
b. / expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and management of power and influence
c. / expected group outcomes, who is in charge, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
d. / who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom to do what

9. When the University of Texas at Arlington (UTA) formed a group to design the Goolsby Leadership Academy, they formed a(n):

a. / informal group
b. / emerging group
c. / unofficial group
d. / assigned group

10. A group's interpersonal compatibility may be assessed by examining which set of interpersonal needs?

a. / need for achievement, inclusion, and control
b. / need for affection, achievement, and power
c. / need for inclusion, affection, and achievement
d. / need for inclusion, control, and affection

11. Dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic in what stage of group development?

a. / norming
b. / forming
c. / performing
d. / adjourning

12. The notion that groups alternate between periods of inertia and bursts of energy as they develop is most consistent with:

a. / storming–norming stage
b. / forming–storming stage
c. / punctuated equilibrium
d. / evolution–revolution in group development

13. The contributor role in a team is usually occupied by someone who:

a. / is a good devil's advocate
b. / is a collaborator
c. / is a good facilitator, listener, and communicator
d. / provides data and necessary information for problem solutions

14. An important role in the performance of cross-functional teams is:

a. / contributor
b. / data generator
c. / challenger
d. / integrator

15. As a member of a quality circle, you frequently check with other members to make sure all are focused on the same problem and that everyone has opportunities to contribute. You are performing the group maintenance function of:

a. / seeking consensus
b. / testing ideas
c. / gatekeeping communication
d. / giving information

16. Teams are appropriate where:

a. / the knowledge and talent of workers are dispersed across members and require integration
b. / tasks are independent and complex
c. / tasks are simple and routine
d. / knowledge and talent is placed in highly skilled individuals

17. Cooperative rewards in work teams will have the most effective impact on:

a. / speed of performance
b. / accuracy of performance
c. / individual satisfaction
d. / none of the above

18. Work team effectiveness in the new team environment requires attention by management to both:

a. / training and work team process
b. / team structure and work team training
c. / team structure and team process
d. / roles and leadership

19. Quality teams are different from quality circles in that:

a. / they are more informal
b. / members usually volunteer to work on quality issues on company time
c. / they are more formal and assigned by upper-level management
d. / they are developed at lower levels of the organization so assignments typically are made by first line supervisors

20. A small group of employees who work voluntarily on company time, typically one hour per week, to address work-related problems defines:

a. / a quality team
b. / a quality circle
c. / an empowered team
d. / a self-managed team

21. Integrated involvement as a social benefit of group or team membership includes:

a. / emotional support
b. / affection and warmth
c. / opportunity for influence
d. / interpersonal openness

22. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the impact of dissimilarity on teams and team members?

a. / value dissimilarity is negatively related to task conflict
b. / functional dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement
c. / value dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement
d. / demographic dissimilarity has no impact on OCB

23. A self-managed work team in a manufacturing facility would most likely make the following decisions?

a. / to schedule a second work shift
b. / to layoff several hundred workers
c. / to install an automated packaging line
d. / to partially rearrange the work flow and assembly areas in their department

24. The research on self-managed teams reported in the Science feature of Chapter 9 suggested that hard and soft influences along with variation on self-monitoring influenced the effectiveness of teams. Which of the following statements regarding that research is most accurate?

a. / Hard influence tactics increased over time.
b. / Low self-monitor managers tended to increase the use of hard influence tactics.
c. / High self-monitors tended to increase their use of soft influence tactics.
d. / Influence tactics did not appear to change over time in a self-directed work team environment.

25. Hambrick and Fukutomi's research on CEO tenure found that the second stage of tenure involved:

a. / selecting an enduring corporate theme
b. / responding to a Board of Directors mandate
c. / convergence or pulling together for performance
d. / experimentation

26. A "wild turkey" in the top management team is:

a. / someone who is uncontrollable
b. / a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives
c. / a member of the executive team that retards the executive teams performance
d. / one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group

27. The skills a team leader requires includes:

a. / flexibility, delegation, and collaboration
b. / communication, decisive decision making, and sensitivity
c. / communication, delegation, and decisive decision making
d. / sensitivity, flexibility, and communication

28. Intuition would be a major part of the input for a manager making what kind of decision?

a. / programmed
b. / rational
c. / breakeven point
d. / nonprogrammed

29. An effective decision is timely, acceptable to the individuals affected by it, and:

a. / efficient
b. / achievable
c. / specific
d. / meets the desired objective

30. The rational model of decision making assumes:

a. / preferences of the decision maker are inconsistent
b. / that all possible alternatives can't be known to decision makers
c. / that outcomes can't be optimized
d. / that the decision maker can calculate the probability of success for alternatives

31. You are starting your senior year of college and look forward to graduation in May. An important task at hand is selecting courses for your final year of study. All but two of your courses are electives. Your course selections will most likely be made based on the:

a. / garbage can model
b. / irrational model
c. / random model
d. / bounded rationality model

32. In the garbage can model of the decision-making process, decisions are:

a. / random
b. / systematic
c. / sequential
d. / optimal

33. A decision situation where some information is known and probabilities can be assigned to alternative solutions reflects a decision made under:

a. / uncertainty
b. / randomness
c. / certainty
d. / risk

34. The cognitive style that exhibits a preference for data and a detailed, objective approach to decision making is:

a. / sensing/feeling
b. / thinking/feeling
c. / intuiting/thinking
d. / sensing/thinking

35. The fourth step in the Z model of problem solving is:

a. / data collection
b. / problem diagnosis
c. / impact analysis
d. / objective analysis of alternatives

36. In the consideration of whether the right or the left part of the brain should be utilized in decision making, the ideal situation is to be:

a. / right brain dominant
b. / left brain dominant
c. / brain-neutralized
d. / brain-lateralized

37. Agor, a researcher on intuition, suggests all of the following can be techniques used by managers to tap into their intuition except:

a. / practicing relaxation techniques
b. / using images to guide the mind
c. / taking creative pauses before making a decision
d. / using decision heuristics and satisficing

38. The stage of creativity where one engages in other activities while the mind considers the problem is:

a. / preparation
b. / illumination
c. / incubation
d. / testing

39. A key organizational requirement for participation and empowerment includes:

a. / an instrumental reward system
b. / clear group goals
c. / supportive culture
d. / people with individual motivation

40. If employees can’t be provided with full participation in all stages of the decision making process, the highest payoff will result from which of the following combinations?

a. / identifying problems, planning implementations, evaluation results
b. / identifying problems, generating alternatives, selecting solutions
c. / generating alternatives, planning implementations, evaluating results
d. / generating alternatives, selecting solutions, evaluating results

41. A group approach to decision making tends to be appropriate when:

a. / the problem is highly structured
b. / technical accuracy is not important
c. / employees may be indifferent to the outcome
d. / employees may be in conflict over preferred solution

42. Recent research on group versus individual decisions suggests that:

a. / individuals will outperform groups on complex tasks
b. / individuals outperform groups under most conditions
c. / groups outperform individuals under conditions where their is relatively high task certainty
d. / groups outperform individuals when the group members have worked together for longer periods of time

43. A recent review of the decision situation in the Challenger incident identified which two variables as being important to the groupthink phenomena?

a. / decision consequence and leadership style
b. / leadership style and time constraints
c. / group insulation and time constraints
d. / decision consequence and time constraints

44. The social comparison approach and persuasive arguments view have both been used to explain:

a. / groupthink
b. / group polarization
c. / cognitive dissonance
d. / bounded rationality

45. A good group decision approach when an objective is to maximize the number of alternatives is:

a. / brainstorming
b. / dialectical inquiry
c. / the Delphi technique
d. / nominal grouping

46. A structured approach to decision making that focuses on generating alternatives silently, prevents criticism of alternatives, and uses a voting process to identify group choices is:

a. / the Delphi technique
b. / dialectical inquiry
c. / the nominal group
d. / devil's advocacy

47. A technique that is valuable in its ability to generate a number of independent judgments without the requirement of a face-to-face meeting is:

a. / the nominal group technique
b. / dialectical inquiry
c. / brainstorming
d. / the Delphi technique

48. As a project group leader, you have recognized the benefits of conflict and some disagreement among project members in solving difficult problems. Accordingly, you are likely to use:

a. / nominal group techniques
b. / brainstorming
c. / devil's advocacy
d. / dialectical inquiry

49. Which of the following is a characteristic of quality teams?

a. / They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority.
b. / They operate in parallel fashion to the organization's structure.
c. / They emphasize the generation of ideas.
d. / They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality.

50. An antidote for groupthink in self-managed teams is: