Module 6: Review Quiz (Modules 1-5)
1. Baking or broiling cooking methods should be used for which of the following cuts of meat?
a. brisket
b. shank
c. flank
d. short loin
2. Which type of flour is best used when preparing muffins?
a. all-purpose flour
b. bread flour
c. cake flour
d. pastry flour
3. A cook asks you if the seafood delivery was inspected in accordance with federal laws. You respond:
a. seafood is inspected in accordance with the Wholesome Meat Act
b. inspection is voluntary for seafood
c. seafood is inspected as needed in accordance with the Wholesome Seafood Act
d. inspection is required by the Federal Meat Inspection Act
4. You receive a food order with 200 lbs. beef roast containing high amounts of yellow connective tissue that is unaffected by heat. This tissue is known as:
a. collagen
b. marbling
c. hemoglobin
d. elastin
5. Which of the following is graded as the most tender cut of meat?
a. select
b. utility
c. prime
d. choice
6. Candling is the process of:
a. grading eggs
b. pasteurizing eggs
c. cooking eggs
d. none of these
7. When preparing a meringue, a foodservice worker quickly separates egg whites from the yolk. As a result of his quickness, some yolk was left in with the whites and the egg whites are not stabilizing when beaten. Why?
a. protein in the yolk inhibits stabilization
b. fat in the yolk inhibits stabilization
c. yolk adds to air incorporation
d. egg whites become watery when yolks are added
8. Which pigment found in cauliflower turns yellow when an alkali is added?
a. carotene
b. anthocyanin
c. anthoxanthin
d. chlorophyll
9. When cooking carrots, what effect occurs when adding baking soda?
a. little or no effect
b. color loss
c. carrots turn yellow
d. carrots become tough
10. Your cook uses refrigerated potatoes to make French fries. What effect does this have on the French fries?
a. decreased cooking time
b. increased cooking time
c. increased browning
d. decreased crispiness
11. When cooking red cabbage in alkaline water, the pigment color anthocyanin turns:
a. olive green
b. yellow
c. none of these, it stays red
d. blue
12. When making a cream soup, you mix together melted butter and flour. This is known as a:
a. slurry
b. gel
c. roux
d. retrogradation
13. When beating egg whites, which of the following might be added to increase stability?
a. milk
b. sugar
c. flour
d. oil
14. If an egg is not denatured by heat, which vitamin would bind to avidin?
a. biotin
b. vitamin C
c. thiamin
d. vitamin E
15. A pumpkin pie recipe calls for milk with ~60% water removed. This described milk is known as: Correct
a. evaporated milk
b. condensed milk
c. buttermilk
d. nonfat dried milk
16. Starch granules swelling as a result of heat is known as:
a. gel
b. gum
c. retrogradation
d. gelantinization
17. Which of the following has the highest amount of protein?
a. all-purpose flour
b. cake flour
c. bread flour
d. pastry flour
18. You receive complaints that the biscuits an employee prepared this morning are compact and tough. Why?
a. under kneading
b. over kneading
c. too hot of an oven
d. too little flour
19. When cooling a tapioca pudding, which of the following occurs?
a. gelatinization
b. gel formation
c. pasting
d. none of these
20. Which of the following inhibits gluten formation?
a. liquid and fat
b. sugar and liquid
c. salt and liquid
d. sugar and fat
21. When cooking broccoli, you add lemon juice which turns the vegetable olive green. The chlorophyll pigment has come into contact with an acid and as a result the pigment has chemically changed to:
a. chlorophyllin
b. flavone
c. pheophytin
d. none of these, it remains the same
22. The cake a cook prepared for the facility's monthly birthday party has a bitter flavor and tough crust. This is probably due to:
a. too much baking powder and low amounts of fat
b. too much baking powder and too hot of oven
c. high amouts of fat and too little mixing
d. too short of baking time and too little sugar
23. The fryer fat has an undesirable odor. This is known as _____ caused by ______.
a. rancidity; hydrogenation
b. winterization; oxidation
c. winterization; hydrogenation
d. rancidity; oxidation
24. Which of the following is not a function of fat in a pastry?
a. tenderness
b. emulsion
c. flavor
d. flakiness
25. Which of the following is not an example of a hydrogenated fat?
a. shortening
b. margarine
c. none of these
d. vegetable oil
26. You are serving a meal that consists of meat loaf, mashed squash, cooked spinach, and applesauce. Which of the following are you aesthetically concerned with?
a. color
b. taste
c. smell
d. texture
27. When beating eggs to make scrambled eggs, you are mechanically causing:
a. denaturation
b. coagulation
c. protein synthesis
d. none of these
28. When making fudge, the temperature and agitation affects:
a. caramelization
b. crystallization
c. ripening
d. sweetness
29. Which of the following is the best source of potassium?
a. zucchini
b. lima beans
c. plum
d. cantaloupe
30. When boiling broccoli, which nutrient would you most expect to lose in cooking water?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin E
c. vitamin C
d. none of these
31. Which of the following is the best source of vitamin B6?
a. 1 medium banana
b. 3 oz. salmon
c. 1/4 cup sunflower seeds
d. 1 cup asparagus
32. Which of the following is not true of water soluble vitamins?
a. absorbed with most other nutrients
b. transported via lipoproteins
c. many serve as coenzymes
d. no great risk of toxicities
33. Which of the following is a good source of folate?
a. squash, cheese, fish
b. wheat germ, steak, nuts
c. liver, asparagus, pinto beans
d. vegetable oil, dried beans, nuts
34. Which of the following is the best source of vitamin B12?
a. 3 oz. roast beef and 8 oz. milk
b. 3 oz. roast beef and 1 cup spinach
c. 8 oz. milk and 1 cup spinach
d. 1 cup strawberries and 1 cup spinach
35. You consume a meal consisting of grilled steak, baked potato, mixed citrus salad, and tea. Which of these would inhibit iron absorption?
a. steak
b. citrus fruit
c. tea
d. none of these
36. You have leftover noodle casserole as a result of a forecasting error. After safely cooling and storing the dish, you plan to reheat for tomorrow's lunch. What minimum temperature will you need to reheat the leftover dish?
a. 140' F
b. 145' F
c. 155' F
d. 165' F
37. The list of substances approved to be added to food and for human consumption is known as:
a. PPS
b. FDAL
c. GRAS
d. BOL
38. A foodservice worker sliced 12 dozen apples earlier than expected for a corporate brunch. What do you suggest to decrease enzymatic browning of the sliced apples?
a. add lecithin
b. add ascorbic acid
c. add MSG
d. add sodium bicarbonate
39. Which of the following would you add to increase volume in biscuits?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. lecithin
c. ascorbic acid
d. MSG
40. Guar gum is found as an ingredient in a pre-made dessert. What is its function?
a. stabilizer or thickener
b. emulsifier
c. leavening agent
d. antioxidant
41. Which of the following is the best information source for nutrient content in foods?
a. FDA food values
b. USDA Food Guide Pyramid
c. FDA Handbook on Food
d. USDA Handbook No. 8
42. Which of the following is a potentially listeria containing food?
a. contaminated water
b. raw eggs
c. soft cheese
d. none of these
43. A volunteer server at your Congregate meal site tells you there is leftover noodle casserole that has been held at 155 degrees F. The volunteers would like to take home leftovers in disposable containers they have run through the dishwasher to reuse. Your concern is:
a. using volunteer servers
b. reusing disposable containers
c. the temperature the casserole was held
d. running disposable containers through the dishwasher
44. When storing meat, why is freezing in a vacuumed pack optimal?
a. kills bacteria and allows oxygen
b. inhibits bacteria growth and allows no oxygen
c. inhibits bacteria and allows oxygen
d. kills enzymes and allows no oxygen
45. After eating some home-canned green beans you begin to have difficulty breathing and double vision. What type of foodborne illness do you suspect?
a. staphylococcus
b. listeria
c. salmonella
d. botulism
46. Nine days after attending a family BBQ you and other family members experience flu like symptoms. You note that everyone who is sick ate hotdogs that may not have been cooked thoroughly. You suspect:
a. salmonella
b. botulism
c. listeria
d. staphylococcus
47. One hour after eating a meal you begin vomiting and suspect foodborne illness. The poultry in the meal was improperly cooked. Which of the following meets your symptoms?
a. staphylococcus
b. botulism
c. E. Coli
d. salmonella
48. Within 4 days of drinking unpasteurized fruit juice you have diarrhea and severe abdominal pain. You suspect foodborne illness. Which of the following is characteristic of your symptoms?
a. staphylococcus
b. botulism
c. salmonella
d. E. Coli
49. All of these inhibit iron absorption except:
a. tannins
b. MFP factor
c. phytates
d. none of these, all inhibit iron absorption
50. When teaching a basic nutrition class, you ask students to list micronutrients. Which of these is not categorized as a micronutrient?
a. chromium
b. beta carotene
c. calcium
d. glucose
51. All of the following are functions of soluble fiber except:
a. aids in reducing cholesterol levels
b. aids in slower glucose absorption
c. provides a feeling of fullness
d. aids in reducing constipation
52. Which of these is the best source of monounsaturated fat?
a. canola oil
b. peanut oil
c. corn oil
d. safflower oil
53. Which of the following foods may aid in reducing constipation?
a. oatmeal
b. wheat bran
c. apples
d. citrus fruits
54. Which of these is not an essential amino acid?
a. phenylalanine
b. lysine
c. isoleucine
d. proline
55. Amino acid metabolism and transamination are funtions of _____. Sources of this nutrient includes ______.
a. vitamin B3; milk & legumes
b. vitamin B2; liver, green leafy vegetables
c. vitamin B6; meat, nuts & seeds
d. vitamin B12; liver & eggs
56. A good source of heme iron includes:
a. liver
b. dried figs
c. spinach
d. beans
57. Which mineral is required for blood coagulation?
a. magnesium
b. calcium
c. potassium
d. zinc
58. Which of the following essential amino acids is deficient in grains?
a. methionine
b. valine
c. lysine
d. histidine
59. A client at the WIC clinic reveals she has been giving her 6 month old whole cow's milk instead of breast milk. Nutritional differences include:
a. cow's milk is lower in CHO and higher in protein
b. cow's milk is higher in CHO and lower in calcium
c. cow's milk is higher in fat and higher in kcal
d. cow's milk is higher in kcal and lower in protein
60. Cholesterol is a precursor of which vitamin?
a. vitamin K
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin B12
61. Which of the following would not be recommended as a supplement for a breast fed infant?
a. fluoride
b. vitamin D
c. iron
d. zinc
62. A woman has gained 10 lbs. in her 1st trimester of pregnancy. This rate of weight gain is:
a. below the recommendation
b. normal weight gain
c. above the recommendation
d. there is no recommendation for weight gain during the 1st trimester
63. Which of the following is not a function of sodium in the body?
a. major ion of extracellular fluid
b. major ion of intracellular fluid
c. maintains fluid balance
d. aids in nerve impulse transmission
64. When storing milk in a clear container, which of the following vitamins are you concerned with being destroyed?
a. riboflavin
b. vitamin B3
c. vitamin A
d. vitamin B12
65. An endurance athlete is concerned with fluid consumption. How much water do you recommend he consumes during a training bout?
a. 6-12 fl oz every 15-20 minutes
b. 4-6 fl oz every 15-20 minutes
c. 6-12 fl oz every 30 minutes
d. 4-6 fl oz every 30 minutes
66. In a fasted state, protein is utilized for energy. In order to use protein for energy, ______is stripped off in a process known as ______.
a. acid, denaturation
b. nitrogen, coagulation
c. carbon, deamination
d. nitrogen, deamination
67. Which nutrient should be increased if protein is increased?
a. iron
b. vitamin B12
c. water
d. vitamin C
68. Which of the following types of iron is the most readily absorbed?
a. non heme
b. heme
c. ferric
d. none of these
69. Which of the following sources of water losses is also known as insensible water losses?
a. lungs and intestine
b. lungs and skin
c. skin and kidneys
d. intestine and kidneys
70. Which of the following is not a function of folate?
a. DNA synthesis
b. metabolism of amino acids
c. red blood cell maturation
d. fat metabolism
71. A strength trained athlete weighs 205 lbs. How much protein should he consume each day?
a. 74 grams
b. 93 grams
c. 149 grams
d. 186 grams
72. An athlete is concerned about eating too much fat. You respond with:
a. there is no advantage athletically by reducing fat to less than 15%
b. most athletes should consume 10-20% fat
c. most athletes require 30-35% fat
d. very little fat is required by athletes
73. Zinc functions include all of the following except:
a. normal growth
b. alcohol metabolism
c. normal immune system
d. aid in thyroid function
74. A 15 year old pregnant female who is 15 pounds overweight should gain:
a. 40 lbs
b. 25 lbs
c. 35 lbs
d. 10 lbs
75. A strength training athlete contacts you to learn more about which vitamin supplements are best. You respond with:
a. water soluble vitamins are needed by endurance athletes
b. calcium and phospherous supplements help with bone density when strength training
c. a standard one a day vitamin supplement is best
d. supplements are generally not needed if a healthy diet is consumed
76. Which of the following requires intrinsic factor for absorption?
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin B12
77. The process of Beta oxidation involves:
a. the breakdown of fatty acids to acetyl CoA
b. the use of lipoprotein lipase for fat storage
c. transport of fats in a fed state
d. none of these
78. Which of the following contains the most protein?
a. LDL cholesterol
b. HDL cholesterol
c. VLDL cholesterol
d. chylomicron
79. You have just eaten a slice of pizza. Which of the following does the pancreas excrete to aid in fat digestion?
a. chyme and pancreatic lipase
b. chyme and gastric lipase
c. cholesterol esterase and gastric lipase
d. cholesterol esterase and pancreatic lipase
80. You are in a "fight or flight" response situation. All of the following are activated except:
a. glucagon
b. epinephrine
c. insulin
d. norepinephrine
81. In glycogenolysis, _____ is converted to glucose.
a. glucose 6-phosphate
b. OAA
c. pyruvate
d. none of these
82. Which of the following combines with CoA in 2 carbon fragments to make acetyl CoA to then enter the Krebs Cycle to make energy?
a. glucose
b. fatty acids
c. fructose
d. lactic acid
83. Maltase is produced in the ______and brakes maltose down into ______.
a. small intestine; a glucose and a fructose molecule
b. pancreas; 2 glucose molecules
c. small intestine; 2 glucose molecules
d. liver; a glucose and a fructose molecule
84. Bile is produced in the ______and stored in the ______.
a. liver: gallbladder
b. gall bladder: liver
c. stomach; liver
d. liver: small intestine
85. Which of the following is synthesized in the intestine?
a. vitamin C
b. vitamin B1
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin B2
86. Which of the following reduces blood sugar?
a. glucagon
b. epinephrine
c. adrenalin
d. insulin
87. Long chain fatty acids enter the liver in the form of ______and leave in the form of ______.
a. lipoprotein; chylomicron
b. fatty acids; chylomicron
c. chylomicron; lipoprotein
d. chylomicron; triglyceride
88. A patient with lactose intolerance might tolerate which of the following dairy products?
a. cottage cheese
b. parmesan cheese
c. nonfat milk
d. condensed milk
89. Cholecystokinin signals:
a. contraction of the gall bladder and secretion of pancreatic juices
b. contraction of gall bladder and peristalsis
c. secretion of gastric and pancreatic juices
d. absorption of fatty acids and peristalsis
90. Which of the following is an anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates?
a. glycolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
c. glycogenolysis
d. fatty acid oxidation
91. Which of the following is true about VLDL cholesterol?
a. composed primarily of cholesterol
b. carries cholesterol out of the liver for excretion
c. composed primarily of protein
d. carries cholesterol and lipids synthesized by the liver out from the liver
92. The net number of ATP molecules produced from glycolysis is:
a. 4
b. 36
c. 2
d. 0
93. Which of the following requires active transport for absorption?
a. vitamin A
b. thiamin
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin E
94. A patient is experiencing stomach pain due to food irritants. You suspect:
a. nausea
b. gastritis
c. lactose intolerance
d. foodborne illness
95. Glucose molecules make up glycogen. This is an example of:
a. catabolism
b. gluconeogenesis
c. glycogenolysis
d. anabolism
96. Which of the following decreases blood sugar?
a. glucagon
b. epinephrine
c. insulin
d. glycogen
97. Which of the following is true of LDL cholesterol?
a. product of VLDL cholesterol breakdown
b. comprised primarily of triglyceride
c. aids in excretion of cholesterol
d. none of these
98. Gluconeogenesis is associated with all of the following except:
a. urea cycle
b. non-CHO energy sources
c. Krebs cycle
d. anaerobic breakdown of CHO
99. Chemical digestion begins in the stomach for all of the following except:
a. fat
b. carbohydrate
c. protein
d. none of these
100. When fats are oxidized for energy which of the following is produced?
a. urea
b. pyruvate
c. glucose-6-phosphate
d. acetyl CoA
101. You have identified that those at risk for type 2 diabetes at a local clinic are in need of nutrition education. Which step of screening have you completed?
a. selection
b. parameters
c. methodology
d. purpose
102. A1c tests and patient interviews of those at risk for type 2 diabetes will be used to screen participants. This is an example of:
a. methodology
b. purpose
c. selection
d. parameters
103. After gathering medical and dietary information, 100 people with pre-diabetes living in Jonesville are in need of nutrition education. This is an example of:
a. methodology
b. selection
c. parameters
d. purpose
104. A 5'7" female weighs 150 lbs. What is her ideal body weight?
a. 145 lbs
b. 125 lbs
c. 115 lbs
d. 135 lbs
105. A 5'7" male weighs 180 lbs. What his percent IBW? Correct
a. 130%
b. 118%
c. 122%
d. 111%
106. A 5'9" female weighs 120 lbs. What does her BMI indicate?
a. increased risk for morbidity due to low BMI
b. within normal healthy standards
c. increased risk for morbidity due to high BMI
d. none of these
107. A male has a waist measurement of 46" and a hip measurement of 38". This indicates:
a. gynoid obesity and indicator for increased risk for heart disease
b. android obesity and indicator for increased risk for heart disease