Essentials of Fire Fighting, 6th Edition Fire Control
Chapter 17 Test
Name: / Date:Directions: Write the correct letter on the blank before each question.
Objective 1:
Describe considerations taken when coordinating fireground operations.
1. Which of the following BEST describes emergency incident priorities? (1057)
A. Extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation
B. Property conservation, salvage, life safety
C. Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation
D. Incident stabilization, environmental conservation, confinement
2. A Firefighter II should use additional training to: (1058)
A. predict victim responses to on-scene hazards.
B. open a debate on the best attack strategy to use.
C. gather votes from others on-scene to select attack strategies.
D. recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings.
3. Which of the following BEST describes open communication? (1058)
A. It is a step taken to prepare for a blitz attack.
B. It is not meant as an opportunity for a debate or vote.
C. It allows firefighters to influence the selection of attack tactics.
D. It is a way to communicate the situation to other responding units.
Objective 2:
Explain fireground roles and responsibilities a firefighter II may need to coordinate.
4. Which of the following defines the actions taken by the first-arriving engine company? (1058)
A. Chief officer
B. Department SOPs
C. Incident Commander
D. Pre-incident surveys
5. What rule can be amended if a life safety hazard to a victim that can be saved without undue risk to firefighters is present on scene? (1059)
A. SAR rule
B. SCBA rule
C. Two-in, two-out rule
D. Situational awareness rule
6. What fireground role is MOST likely to finish hose lays begun by the first-arriving company? (1060)
A. Incident Commander
B. Rapid intervention crew/team
C. Fireground support company
D. Second-arriving engine company
7. Which of the following BEST describes what the size and quantity of hoselines can impact on-scene? (1060)
A. The need for other resources.
B. The location of apparatus on-scene.
C. The use of the two-in, two-out rule.
D. The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant.
8. When is simultaneous entry performed by a fireground support company? (1062)
A. When the first-arriving company has too many personnel on-scene.
B. When search and rescue operations must be done at the same time as fire attack.
C. When the area closest to the fire poses a severe risk to firefighters.
D. When the average water pressure in the distribution system is low.
9. Which of the following BEST describes where search patterns are started? (1062)
A. In areas where other exposures are at risk.
B. Where specialized equipment can be used easily.
C. Where the fewest number of victims are located.
D. In the area closest to the fire if it will not put firefighters at risk of severe injury.
10. Which of the following BEST describes safety considerations during a blitz attack? (1062)
A. Steam can assist in suppression efforts.
B. Specialized rescue tools can injure teams.
C. Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat.
D. This type of attack is only coordinated with the Incident Commander.
11. What fireground role is defined as the one that works to locate and assist firefighters trapped during operations? (1063)
A. Incident Commander
B. Second-arriving company
C. Rapid intervention crew/team
D. Fireground support company
12. What fireground role should be two or more members wearing complete PPE and respiratory protection, with the purpose of locating firefighters incapacitated during operations? (1063)
A. Incident Commander
B. Second-arriving company
C. Rapid intervention crew/team
D. Fireground support company
13. Which of the following BEST describes when a chief officer may assume a role other than Incident Commander (IC) on-scene? (1064)
A. When a fast-attack suppression operation is needed.
B. When the incident organization needs to be improved.
C. Never, the original IC should always stay in control of operations.
D. When the original IC has made reasonable progress toward stabilization.
Objective 3:
Discuss the process of establishing and transferring Command.
Objective 4:
Describe hazards that may be present at fires in underground spaces.
14. What Command approach is used when the problem is not obvious to the first-arriving unit? (1064)
A. Formal
B. Combat
C. Fast-attack
D. Nothing showing
15. Which of the following BEST describes when to withdraw when using the fast-attack command approach? (1065)
A. When formal command ends.
B. When combat command is required.
C. When the incident is finalized and the Incident Command Post is no longer needed.
D. When the incident is not stabilized, but but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required.
16. What BEST describes the preferred method of transferring Command? (1066)
A. Face-to-face
B. Over the radio
C. Through the IAP protocol
D. Through the NIMS protocol
17. Which of the following is an atmospheric hazard that can be expected at a fire in an underground space? (1067)
A. Toxic gases
B. Standing water
C. Limited means of entry and egress
D. Cave-ins or unstable support members
18. Which of the following is a physical hazard that can be expected at a fire in an underground space? (1067)
A. Toxic gases
B. Explosive dusts
C. Oxygen deficiencies
D. Cave-ins or unstable support members
19. Which of the following BEST describes where the Command Post is established at in an underground fire? (1068)
A. Near the hot zone, limiting entrance pathways
B. Near the hot zone, 100 feet (30 m) from the entrance
C. Outside of the hot zone, 100 feet (30 m) from the entrance
D. Outside of the hot zone, near but not obstructing the entrance
Objective 5:
List safety precautions that should be taken at flammable/combustible liquid fire incidents.
Objective 6:
Recognize methods used when coordinating operations at a property protected by a fire suppression system.
20. Which of the following BEST describes the flash point of flammable liquids? (1068)
A. Less than 100°F (38°C)
B. Greater than 100°F (38°C)
C. Each varies, but it is never less than 50°F (10°C)
D. Each varies, but it is always higher than 50°F (10°C)
21. Which of the following BEST describes ignition of combustible liquids? (1068)
A. These can be ignited without pre-heating.
B. These need pre-heating and vapor for ignition.
C. These require foam and an external fuel source for ignition.
D. These must be heated above the flash point before igniting.
22. Where should apparatus be located at a Class B fire? (1068)
A. Upwind and uphill of the incident
B. Upwind and downhill of the incident
C. Downwind and uphill of the incident
D. Downwind and downhill from the incident
23. Increased intensity of sound or fire from a relief valve indicates that the: (1070)
A. valve is safely relieving excess pressure.
B. valve is reacting to the change of a gas to liquid.
C. vessel is overheating and a rupture is imminent.
D. vessel is releasing vapor to prevent overloading.
24. Which of the following BEST describes a hazard particular to carbon dioxide fixed suppression systems? (1070)
A. Skin irritation
B. Oxygen depletion
C. Increased visibility
D. Depletion of water supply
25. Which of the following BEST describes how operating pressure can be maintained for water-based suppression systems? (1071)
A. Using the lowest possible pressure for all attack lines
B. Requesting utilities shut off water to nearby structures
C. Turning system water off and on periodically during suppression efforts
D. Deploying supply hoses from hydrant to fire department connection (FDC)
26. Which of the following occupancies are non-water-based systems MOST likely to be found? (1072)
A. Covered malls
B. Recreational boats
C. Multi-family dwellings
D. Industrial occupancies
27. When activated clean agent systems suppress the fire by: (1072)
A. blanketing the fire.
B. deploying both water and another agent.
C. cooling nearby objects eliminating radiant heat.
D. filling the compartment with extinguishing agent.
28. What type of fixed system can allow deployment of attack hoselines in large area structures or industrial sites? (1071)
A. Foam system
B. Standpipe system
C. Water-based system
D. Automatic sprinkler system
Objective 7:
Explain ways to use water to control Class B fires.
Objective 8:
Compare methods used to suppress bulk transport vehicle fires and flammable gas incidents.
29. Water as a cooling agent must be combined with ___ to be effective on lighter petroleum distillates. (1073)
A. chemicals
B. clean agents
C. carbon dioxide
D. foam additives
30. Water as a mechanical tool can move ___ to where they can burn safely. (1073)
A. Class A fuels
B. Class B fuels
C. Class C fuels
D. Class K fuels
31. When pressure vessels are exposed to flame impingement, a minimum of ___ must be applied at each point of flame impingement. (1074)
A. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min)
B. 1000 gpm (4 000 L/min)
C. 1500 gpm (6 000 L/min)
D. 2000 gpm (8 000 L/min)
32. Techniques for extinguishment at bulk transport vehicle fires are similar to fires in: (1075)
A. high-rise structures.
B. underground tunnels.
C. residential occupancies.
D. flammable fuel storage facilities.
33. Which of the following BEST describes a way to determine the nature of cargo at a bulk transport vehicle fire? (1076)
A. Use past experience to predict
B. Use bills of lading or placards
C. Estimate based on type of container
D. Estimate using information from witnesses
34. Which of the following BEST describes approach and staging techniques used at flammable gas incidents? (1076)
A. Approach from and stage on the upwind side
B. Approach from and stage on the downwind side
C. Approach from downwind and stage on upwind side
D. Approach from upwind and stage on the downwind side
35. Which of the following BEST describes the process taken at flammable gas incidents if gas is burning? (1076)
A. Extinguish burning flame
B. Request mutual aid extrication teams
C. Use hose streams to protect exposures if needed
D. Monitor, but do not shut off pressurized gas supply
Fire Protection Publications Firefighter II Chapter Test
Oklahoma State University 17-7