ANATOMY MCQ’S 1

RxDENTISTRY

RX DENTISTRY PRESENTS YOU WITH

NEW MCQ’S SERIES . TO START WITH HERE IS ANATOMY

Dr. MADAAN

2/18/2009

ANATOMY MCQ’S 1

1. The subodontoblastic plexus of Raschkow occurs:

a. Below the cell bodies of odontoblasts

b. In the root region of the pulp

c. Within the central pulp core

d. Within the cell-rich zone of Weil

2. Uppermost structure seen at the hilum of the left lung is:

a. Pulmonary artery

b. Pulmonary vein

c. Bronchus

d. Bronchial artery

3. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:

a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand

b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles

c. Claw hand

d. adduction of thumb

4. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:

a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery

b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery

c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery

d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery

5. What are intrinsic fibers of cementum?

a. Fibers produced by cementoblasts

b. Noncalcified fibers associated with the attachment of periodontal ligament fibers

c. Principal fibers of the PDL

d. None of the above

6. In post-ductalcoarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through:

a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels

b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric

c. Sub costal and Umbilical

d. Umbilical and superior gastric

7. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:

a. Astereognosis

b. Hemiparesis

c. Hemi sensory loss

d. No neurological deficit

8. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:

a. Ascending colon

b. Hepatic flexure

c. Splenic flexure

d. Descending colon

9. Gall bladder epithelium is:

a. Simple squamous

b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia

c. Simple columnar

d. Simple columnar with brush border

10. Perforating fibers consisting of collagen fibers embedded in alveolar bone proper are known as:

a. Gingival fibers

b. Sharpey’s fibers

c. Transseptal fibers

d. Alveolar fibers

11. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillaryline:

a. Innermost intercostals

b. Transverses thoracis

c. External intercostals

d. Internal intercostals

12. Dangerous area of the eye is:

a. Ciliary body

b. Sclera

c. Optic nerve

d. Retina

13. Urothelium does not line:

a. Collecting ducts

b. Minor calyx

c. Ureter

d. Urinary bladder

14. Which type of gingival fibers attaches to cementum of adjacent teeth and is present over the alveolar crest?

a. Alveolar crest fibers

b. Alveologingival fibers

c. Transseptal fibers

d. Circular fibers

15. The secretory product of odontoblasts is:

a. Topocollagen.

b. Calcium salts.

c. Mantle dentin.

d. Hydroxyapatite.

16. The escapement spaces between teeth and the interdental spaces are called:

a. Marginal ridges.

b. Contact areas.

c. Embrasures.

d. Developmental grooves

17. Basement membrane consists of all except:

a. Laminin

b. Nidogenin

c. Entactin

d. Rhodopsin

18. Perforators are not present at the:

a. Ankle

b. Distal calf

c. Mid thigh

d. Below the inguinal ligament

19. Tongue muscles develops from:

a. Occipital somites

b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch

c. Cervical somites

d. Endoderm of pharyngeal pouch

20. A female come with complaints of chest pain. On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:

a. Deep cardiac plexus

b. Superficial cardiac plexus

c. Phrenic nerve

d. Subcostal nerve

21. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:

a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte

b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte

c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid

d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid

22. The ureter develops from:

a. Metanephros

b. Mesonephros

c. Mesonephric duct

d. Paramesonephric duct

23. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:

a. Flexion

b. Extension

c. Medial rotation

d. Lateral rotation

24. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:

a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4

25. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone, except -

a. It is the strongest part of bone.

b. It is the most vascular part of bone.

c. Growth activity50 is maximized here.

d. It is the region favoring hematogenous spread of infection.

26. All of the following muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’ except -

a. Buccinator.

b.Masseter.

c.Temporalis.

d.Pterygoids.

27. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:

a. Isthmus of the thyroid

b. Inferior thyroid artery

c. Thyroideaima

d. Inferior thyroid vein

28. Vidian Nerve is formed by

a. Deep Petrosal & Greater Superficial Petrosal nerve

b. Greater Superficial Petrosal Nerve and Lesser Superficial Petrosal Nerve.

c. Deep Petrosal Nerve and Lesser Superficial Petrosal Nerve

d. None of the above

29. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:

a. Tenosynovitis

b. Dupuyteren’s contracture

c. Carpal tunnel syndrome

d. Trigger finger

30. Which of the following is correctly matched:

a. B cells – Somatostain

b. D cells – Insulin

c. G cells – Gastrin

d. A cells - renin

31. Internal spermatic fascia is derived from

a. Transversalisfacia

b. Internal abdominis muscle

c. External Oblique Abdominis Muscle

d. Internal Oblique Abdominis Muscle

32. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:

a. FSH b. LH c. Inhibin d. testosterone

33. External laryngeal nerve supplies

a. Superior Constrictor. b. Middle Constrictor. c. Inferior constrictor. d. None of the above

34. Most common site of spinal tumour

a. Extramedullaryintradural

b. Extra dural

c. Intra medullary

d. Extra meduralaryextradural

35. All are essential components of TOF except:

a. Valvularpulmonicstenosis

b. Right ventricular hypertrophy

c. Infundibularstenosis

d. Aorta overriding

36. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:

a. Dedifferentiation

b. Redifferentiation

c. Transdifferentiation

d. Subdifferentiation

37. The communicating vein responsible for spread of infection from the Dangerous area of the face.

a. Superior ophthalmic Vein

b. Inferior Ophthalmic Vein

c. Maxillary Vein

d. Lingual Vein

38. Artery to vas deferens is a branch of

a. Inferior epigastric

b. Superior vesical

c. Cremasteric

d. Middle rectal

39. What is the origin of the definitive myocardium of the adult heart?

a. Endoderm

b. Somatopleuric mesoderm

c. Hypoblast

d. Splanchnopleuric mesoderm

40. An infarct causing bilateral infarction of the occipital lobes is likely to be secondary to occlusion in the territory of the :

a. The Posterior Cerebral Artery

b. The Basilar Artery

c. The superior cerebellar artery

d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery

41. Most fascia of the body that attach to bones attach by which of thefollowing mechanisms?

a. Blending with the covering periosteum

b. Inserting deeply into the cancellous bone

c. Inserting deeply into the cartilage

d. Inserting deeply into the diaphysis

42. Which of these statements about Scalenus anterior is true

a. Is an accessory muscle of respiration

b. Lies anterior to the suprascapular artery

c. Is pierced by the phrenic nerve

d. Inserts into the scalene tubercle on the second rib

43. Which of the following respiratory system components is derivedfrom neural crest?

a. Endothelial cells

b. Epithelium of primary bronchi

c. Laryngeal cartilage

d. Tracheal glands

44. An infarct involving the seventh nerve and nucleus is likely to be secondary to occlusion in the territory of the:

a. The Posterior Cerebral Artery

b. The Basilar Artery

c. The superior cerebellar artery

d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery

45. A patient has a tumour based in an enlarged jugular foramen , what is the most likely presentation?

a. Eight cranial nerve palsy

b. Ninth cranial nerve palsy

c. Tenth cranial nerve palsy

d. Eleventh cranial nerve palsy

46. True about diaphragm is

a. Develops from the septum transversum and cervical myotomes

b. Receives a nerve supply from phrenic nerve only

c. The inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm at the level of the T12 vertebra

d. The aorta passes through the diaphragm at the level of the T8 vertebra

47. Which cranial nerve exits the skull base at the pars nervosa of the jugular foramen ?

a. Eight cranial nerve palsy

b. Ninth cranial nerve palsy

c. Tenth cranial nerve palsy

d. Eleventh cranial nerve palsy

48. The following structures pass under the inguinal ligament

a. The tendon of psoas major

b. The femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

c. The long saphenous vein

d. The superficial epigastric vein

49. The axilla contains all except

a. The cords of the brachial plexus

b. The superior thoracic artery

c. The latissimusdorsi muscle in its medial wall

d. The thoracodorsal nerve in its posterior wall

50. What suspensory ligaments connect the outer edge of the lens of the eye with the ciliary processes?

a. Zonnules of Zinn b. Zonnules of Schlemm c. Cruciate ligaments d. Ligaments of Treitz

51. Closure of the neural tube occurs on around which day of the embryonic life period?

a. 26 b. 38 c. 56 d. 74

52. Which of the following is true of the optic disc?

a. No arteries pass through it

b. No veins pass through it

c. It appears dark red on fundoscopy

d. It is normally less than 1cm in diameter

53. An infarct causes a pure motor herniparesis . This infarct is likely to be secondary to occlusion in the territory of the :

a. The Posterior Cerebral Artery

b. Deep penetrating lacunar artery

c. The superior cerebellar artery

d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery

54. The most common sex chromosomal aneuploidy in males is

a. XX karyotype b. XXY karyotype c. XO karyotype d. XXX karyotype

55. The buccinator muscle:

a. Is attached to both jaws opposite the molar teeth

b. Is supplied by the V nerve

c. Is continuous with the superior constrictor of the pharynx

d. Is a muscle of mastication

56. Nerves that pass in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus include:

a. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

b. The sixth cranial nerve

c. The anterior ethmoidal nerve

d. The optic nerve

57. The nerve supplying submandibular gland is

a. V b. VII c. IX d. XII

58. The muscle least related to pterygomandibularraphe is

a. Superior pharyngeal constrictor

b. Medial pterygoid

c. Lateral pterygoid

d. Buccinator

59. The radial nerve

a. Is the principal branch of the posterior cord of the brachialplexus

b. Is derived from the posterior primary rami of the C5 to T1 nerve roots

c. Is the main nerve supply to the flexor compartments of the arm and forearm

d. Supplies sensation to the extensor aspect of the radial three and a half digits

60. The heart of an embryo first begins beating at which of the following ages?

a. 2 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 6 weeks

61. Which of these statements about oesophagus is true?

a. Is 40 cm in length

b. Is lined by stratified squamous epithelium in the upper two-thirds

c. Is lined by transitional epithelium in the lower one-third

d. Drains all of its blood into the azygos and hemiazygos veins

62. A 36-year-old Asian male complains of difficultyswallowing. Esophagoscopy reveals a polypoid mass that is subsequently biopsied. In addition to tumor cells, the esophageal biopsy show normal smooth muscle and striated muscle in the same section. Which portion of the esophagus was the source of this biopsy?

a. Lower esophageal sphincter

b. Lower third of the esophagus

c. Middle third of the esophagus

d. Upper esophageal sphincter

63. Contraction of which of the following muscles contributes most to the backward movement of the lower jaw during the process of mastication?

a. Digastric b. Lateral pterygoid c. Medial pterygoid d. Temporalis

64. Which of the following hormones is secreted by anterior pituitary cells that stain with acidic dyes?

a. ACTH b. FSH c. LH d. Prolactin

65. A 7-year-old patient presents with a mass in the anterior midline of the neck, slightly above the larynx. The mass is mobile and elevates upon protrusion of the tongue. This mass is most likely a cyst that developed from which of the following embryonic structures?

a. First pharyngeal cleft b. First pharyngeal pouch c. Second pharyngeal cleft d. Thyroglossal duct

66. Zygomycosis, a destructive fungal infection of the sinuses, is likely to reach the brain by which of the following routes?

a. Cavernous sinus

b. External carotid artery

c. Internal carotid artery

d. Superior sagittal sinus

67. Which of these statements about the thymus gland is false

a. Develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch

b. Decreases in size with age

c. Is made up of cells of endodermal origin

d. Descends anterior to the brachiocephalic vein

68. The morphofunction unit of the breast is composed of:

a. The aveoli and the large duct system

b. The lobule and the stroma

c. The lactiferous sinus and the terminal ductules

d. The TDLU (terminal duct lobular unit) and the large duct system

69. What is the length of the Human spermatozooa (Sperm)?

a. 50 micrometers b. 100 micrometers c. 200 micrometers d. 500 micrometers

70. Which of the following stimulus does not induce visceral pain ?

a. Distension b. Pressure c. Cauterisation d. Cutting

71. Which of these statements about the pancreas gland is false

a. Lies anterior to the left kidney

b. Derives part of its blood supply from the splenic artery only

c. Has parts in both the supracolic and infracolic compartments

d. Is pierced by the middle colic artery

72. A 25-year-old female presents to her obstetrician after taking a home pregnancy test with a positive result. She states that twins run in her family and would like an ultrasound to determine if she has a twin pregnancy. Radiographic studies confirm that the embryo has split at the blastocyst stage. Splitting of the embryo at the blastocyst stage results in which of the following?

a. Conjoined twins

b. Dizygotic twins

c. Fraternal twins

d. Monozygotic twins

73. A newborn male child is noted to have hypospadias. A complete evaluation determines that the child has no other genitourinary anomalies. Nonetheless, hyposp- adias repair will be performed to prevent which of the following possible sequelae?

a. Bladder exstrophy

b. Hydrocele

c. Phimosis

d. Urinary tract infection

74. A 12-month-old child is diagnosed with an atrialseptal defect. What is the most common cause of such a congenital heart malformation?

a. Failure of formation of the septum primum

b. Failure of formation of the septum secundum

c. Incomplete adhesion between the septum primumand septumsecundum

d. Malformation of the membranous interventricular septum

75. Which of the pharyngeal pouches develops into the palatine tonsil?

a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth

76. During anatomy lab, a medical student notes a fibrous band that runs on the visceral surface of the liver. It is attached on one end to the inferior vena cava and on the other end to the left branch of the portal vein. In the embryo, this structure corresponds to the

a. Ductusvenosus b. Ligamentumteres c. Ligamentumvenosum d. Umbilical arteries

77. At which of the following ages does fetal movement first occur?

a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 4 months d. 6 months

78. A patient, who appears to be female, is found to be 46, XY. The patient's vagina is very shallow, ending in a blind pouch, and there are palpable masses in the labia. The diagnosis of testicular feminization syndrome is made. Which of the following was most likely present during the early fetal life of this individual?

a. A streak ovary b. A uterus c. Depressed levels of testosterone d. MIF (Mullerian inhibitory factor)

79. The smooth part of the right atrium derives from which of the following embryonic structures?

a. Bulbuscordis b. Primitive atrium c. Primitive ventricle d. Sinus venosus

80. Which of the following characteristics is similar forspermatogenesis and oogenesis ?

a. Age at which meiosis begins

b. Amount of cytoplasm retained

c. DNA replication during meiosis

d. Length of prophase I

81. in a genotypic male, the testes fail to develop, and do not secrete testosterone or Müllerian regression factor. Which of the following best describes the in utero reproductive system development of this individual?

a. Both male- and female-type internal reproductive tracts and male-type external genitalia

b. Female-type internal reproductive tract and female- type external genitalia

c. Female-type internal reproductive tract and male-type external genitalia

d. Male-type internal reproductive tract and female-type external genitalia

82. Which of these statements about the common bile duct is false

a. Lies in the free edge of the lesser omentum

b. Lies anterior to the portal vein

c. Lies to the right of the hepatic artery

d. Lies anterior to the first part of the duodenum

83. From which of the following fetal vessels do the umbilical arteries arise?

a. Aorta b. Carotid arteries c. Ductus arteriosus d. Iliac arteries

84. Thoracic duct is also called

a. Hensen’s duct b. Bernard’s duct c. Pecquet duct d. Hoffman’s duct

85. The greater omentum is derived from which of the following embryonic structures?

a. Dorsal mesoduodenum

b. Dorsal mesogastrium

c. Pericardioperitoneal canal

d. Pleuropericardial membranes

86. The lateral pterygoid muscle attaches to which of the following?

a. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.

b. Medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.

c. Lateral surface of the medial pterygoid plate.

d. Medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate.

87. Which of the following muscles is responsible for the formation of the posterior tonsillar pillar?

a. Stylopharyngeus. b. Tensor veli palatine. c. Palatoglossus. d. Palatopharyngeus.

88. The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into the

a. Internal jugular vein b. Pterygoid plexus c. Frontal vein d. Facial vein

89. The masseter originates from the

a. Condyle of the mandible b. Infratemporal crest of the sphenoid bone c. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch d. Pyramidal process of the palatine bone

90. Which of the following muscles adducts the vocal cords?

a. Lateral cricoarytenoid. b. Posterior cricoarytenoid. c. Cricothyroid. d. Vocalis.

91. Which of the following strata of oral epithelium is engaged in mitosis?

a. Basale. b. Granulosum. c. Corneum. d. Spinosum.

92. The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which of the following vessels?

a. Maxillary artery. b. Superficial temporal artery. c. Deep auricular artery. d. Middle meningeal artery.

93. The muscle that is found in the walls of the heart is characterized by

a. A peripherally placed nucleus

b. Multiple nuclei

c. Intercalated discs

d. Fibers with spindle-shaped cells

94. All of the following are found in the posterior triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the exception?

a. External jugular vein. b. Subclavian vein. c. Hypoglossal nerve. d. Phrenic nerve.

95. Deoxygenated blood from the transverse sinus drains into the _

a. Inferior sagittal sinus b. Confluence of sinuses c. Sigmoid sinus d. Straight sinus

96. The vestigial cleft of Rathke's pouch in the hypop- hysis is located between the

a. Anterior and posterior lobes

b. Anterior lobe and hypothalamus c

c. Posterior lobe and hypothalamus

d. Median eminence and the optic chiasm

97. Involution of the thymus would occur following which year in a healthy individual?

a. 0 years (at birth). b. 12th year. c. 20th year. d. 60thyear.

98. Blood from the internal carotid artery reaches the posterior cerebral artery by the