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Bio 347
Final Comprehensive Examination
December 13, 2007 Name______Key______
Note: Please place your name and answers on the scantron provided. We will not give credit for answers marked on the exam that differ from the scantron--we will grade only the scantron. Indicate Exam A or B format. Hand in the exam + scantron. Please turn off all electronic devices.
I. Multiple Choice (2 pts each, 100 pts total). Please circle the best answer.
1. Expression of a protein called ______by a cell results in immortality (ability to proliferate).
A. CTLA-4 D. B7
B. CD-28 E. CD-38
C. Telomerase
2. Monoclonal antibodies are produced and secreted by _____cells.
A. T helper cells D. B cells
B. T cytotoxic cells E. Hybridoma cells
C. NK cells
3. Thymocyte positive selection occurs at which stage of development?
A. CD4/CD8-negative, TCR-negative
B. CD4/CD8-negative, TCR-positive
C. CD4-positive, CD8-negative, TCR-positive
D. CD4/CD8-positive, TCR-positive
E. E. CD4/CD8-positive, TCR-negative
4. Which of the following is not a feature of a memory B cell response that distinguishes it from the primary response?
A. usually IgG (isotype switched)
B. faster kinetics
C. failure to undergo somatic mutations in hypervariable regions
D. higher titer
E. higher affinity
5. Which of the following is NOT a key property of cytokines?
A. pleiotropism
B. synergy
C. redundancy
D. affinity maturation
E. antagonism
6. 18. p53 acts as a tumor suppressor gene by inhibiting
A. cyclin A/CDK-2 complex phosphorylation of Rb
B. cyclin B/CDK-2 complex phosphorylation of Rb
C. cyclin E/CDK-2 complex phosphorylation of Rb
D. cyclin D/CDK-2 complex phosphorylation of Rb
E. cyclin F/CDK-2 complex phosphorylation of Rb
7. Defects in recombination-activating genes can lead to immunodeficiency by affecting
A. T helper cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. B cells
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
8. Loss or knockout of "lymphoid progenitor cell" results in
A. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
B. T cell deficiency only
C. B cell deficiency only
D. myeloid deficiency only
E. monocyte deficiency only
9. Which "Pioneer" in immunology is credited with the discovery that attenuated vaccines could generate immunity?
A. Edward Jenner
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Elie VanBehring
D. Karl Landsteiner
E. Elie Metchnikoff
10. Which "Pioneer" performed blood transfusion experiments and proposed that cellular and humoral components were responsible for blood transfusion incompatibility?
A. Edward Jenner
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Elie VanBehring
D. Karl Landsteiner
E. Elie Metchnikoff
11. In humans, which organ/tissue harbors the cellular components/precursors for generating both cellular and humoral immune system?
A. thymus
B. lymph node
C. bursa equivalent
D. bone marrow
E. spleen
12. Humoral immune responses are mediated by:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. macrophages
D. NK cells
E. dendritic cells
13. Secondary immune responses are mediated by
A. B cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. T helper cells
D. A and B are correct
E. A and C are correct
14. When the thymus is removed, humoral immunity will be characterized by the expression of low levels of ____ by B cells.
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
E. IgD
14. Which of the following would indicate that a population of bone marrow cells has been enriched for stem cells?
A. ability of small number of cells to repopulate hematopoietic/lymphoid cells in x-irradiated mice
B. ability of small number of cells to grow in soft agar
C. ability of a small number of cells growing in culture to secrete IL-2 cytokines
D. ability of a small number of cells to suppress cell proliferation
E. ability of a small number of cells to interact with dendritic cells and macrophages
15. Toll-like receptors can be activated by
A. peptides of 8-10 amino acids
B. peptides of 14-18 amino acids
C. lipids
D. nucleic acids
E. TNF cytokines
16. Which Ig is present in saliva and milk?
A. IgG D. IgE
B. IgM E. IgD
C. IgA
17. Which Ig is a pentamer in structure?
A. IgG D. IgE
B. IgM E. IgD
C. IgA
18. A SCID mouse has
A. no B nor T cell immune responses
B. B cell responses but no T cell responses
C. T cell responses but no B cell responses
D. No antigen presenting macrophages
E. no antigen presenting dendritic cells
19. Which of the following is characteristic of haptens?
A. single epitope
B. multiple epitopes
C. protein under 2,000 molecular weight
D. contains Ig domain like structure
E. is composed of carbohydrates only
20. All but one is characteristic of adaptive immunity
A. response is T cell independent
B. there is a lag time after activated
C. immunologic memory
D. Ig class switching
E. high affinity antibodies
21. Which domain of IgG mediates crossing the placenta?
A. Fab
B. Fc
C. F(ab)2
D. light chains
E. both Fab and Fc
22, A kappa light chain gene family has how many constant (C region) genes?
A. 1 D. 4
B. 2 E. 11
C. 3
23. Allelic exclusion means:
A. both heavy chains and both light chains will be identical
B. both heavy chains and both light chains will be different
C. only both heavy chains will be identical
D. only both light chains will be identical
E. none of the above
24. During class switching:
A. heavy chain C region genes are switched
B. light chain C regin genes are switched
C. heavy chain V region genes are switched
D. light chain V region genes are switched
E. C and D are correct
25. Human MHC class II region consists of the following genes.
A. K S D
B. B C A
C. DP, DQ, DR
D. Cr, C2
E. Ia, IE
26. CD 22 receptor on antigen presenting cells binds to:
A. CD 28
B. CD 45
C. LFA 1
D. ICAM
E. CD 2
27. CD 8 on cytotoxic T cells binds to
A. alpha chain of MHC class I protein
B. beta chain of MHC class I protein
C. alpha chain of MHC class II protein
D. beta chain of MHC class II protein
E. beta-2 microglobuln
28. Pre T cells present in bone marrow are referred to as:
A. single negative
B. single positive
C. double negative
D. double positive
29. Light chain surrogate is necessary for the development/differentiation of
A. macrophages D. T cells
B. dendritic cells E. NK cells
C. B cells
30. During light chain editing RAG 1 and RAG 2 are:
A. down regulated
B. knocked out
C. up regulated
D. expression is not changed
E. not involved
31. B memory cells can be identified by expression of:
A. low ICAM 1 levels
B. high ICAM 1 levels
C. low levels o IgM and IgD
D. low levels of complement receptor
E. IL-10
32. Memory B cells are generated in
A. bone marrow
B. thymus
C. liver
D. germinal centers
E. bursa equivalent region
33. Which blood group is referred to as universal donor of red blood cells?
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB
34. Which cell type is responsible for inhibiting intra-tumor cytotoxic T cells from killing the tumor cells?
A. T helper 1 cells
B. NK cells
C. T helper 2 cells
D. T regulator cells
E. T 17 cells
35. In type I diabetes, beta cells of the pancreas abnormally express which marker?
A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. TCR
D. CD28
E. CD 4
36. In individuals where the fat to protein ratio is high express:
A. low levels of leptin
B. high levels of leptin
C. low levels of IgG1
D. high levels of IgG1
E. abnormal levels of complement
37. Which Ig is referred to as the "rheumatoid factor"?
A. IgG D. IgE
B. IgM E. IgD
C. IgA
38. Cells in our body express a membrane marker called ____ which protects the cells from immune destruction.
A. CD 45 D. CD 34
B. CD 47 E. CD 7
C. CD 22
39. NZB mouse strain is an animal model for which autoimmune disease?
A. myasthenia gravis
B. lupus
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. multile sclerosis
E. thyroditis
40. Which of the following is the correct pathway for energy requirements of cancer cells?
A. glucose----pyruvate-----citric acid cycle
B. glucose----pyruvate------lactate
C. glucose----pyruvate------fructose
D. glucose----lactate------pyruvate
E. glucose----citric acid cycle----pyruvate
41. Somatic mutations giving rise to high affinity antibodies occur in the
A. bone marrow
B. spleen
C. bursa equivalent
D. germinal centers
D. thymus
42. Which one of the following statements about p53 is false?
A. p53 is a guardian of the genome
B. p53 is an executioner
C. p53 mutated in approximately 50% of cancers
D. p53 can be mutated by benzo (A) pyrene
E. p53 is an oncogene
43. Which investigator examined the family history of children with retinoblastoma and proposed that both alleles of a gene had to be silenced for retinoblastoma to develop?
A. Ray Teplitz
B. Ray Owen
C. Al Knudson
D. Bob Weinberg
E. Michael Bishop
44. Oncogene Erb-B is derived from protooncogene____.
A. platelet derived growth factor receptor
B. insulin derived growth factor receptor
C. epidermal growth factor recptor
D. Fas ligand receptor
E. transforming growth factor receptor
45. NOD mice serve as models for ______autoimmunity
A. lupus
B. type I diabetes
C. type II diabetes
D. multiple sclerosis
E. rheumatoid arthritis
46. In inflammatory bowel disorder, removal of T helper 1 cells
A. reduces the severity of the disorder
B. enhances the severity of the disorder
C. results in greater numbers of T17 helper cells
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
47. Immature B cells express membrane_____
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. A and B are correct
E. B and C re correct
48. Immune assay used to detect a specific cytokine made by cells is called
A. immune fluorescence
B. indirect ELISA
C. direct ELISA
D. ELISPOT
E. ECL
49. Which assay would one use to determine if a protein of interest is a heterodimer?
A. ELISA
B. Diagonal gel electrophoresis
C. Fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS)
D. ECL
E. none of the above
50. Which assay would be best to use to detect ratio of T helper and cytotoxic T cells in the peripheral blood of humans?
A. ELISA
B. Diagonal gel electrophoresis
C. Fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS)
D. ECL
E. none of the above