Pharmacology Exam for Grade 2004(B) Pakistan Students
(Exam 1) — May 11th, 2005
Part Ⅰ Choice Questions （60 points, 1.5/item）
Type A (only one answer is correct)
1. The study of the time course of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs in the body is called
A. pharmacology
B. pharmacokinetics
C. pharmacodynamics
D. pharmacy
E. pharmaceutics
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. weak bases are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach
B. coadministration of atropine speeds the absorption of a second drug
C. drugs showing large Vd can be efficiently removed by dialysis of the plasma
D. stressful emotions can lead to a slowing of drug absorption
E. if the Vd for a drug is small, most of the drug is in the extraplasmic space
3. All of the following statements are true except
A. aspirin(pKa=3.5) is 90% in its lipid-soluble, protonated form at pH=2.5
B. the basic drug promethazine (pKa=9.1) is more ionized at pH=7.4 than at pH=2.
C. absorption of a weakly basic drug is likely to occur faster from the intestine than from the stomach
D. acidification of the urine accelerates the secretion of a weak base, pKa = 8
E. unchanged molecules more readily cross cell membranes than charged molecules
4. Drugs showing zero-order kinetics of elimination
A. are more common than those showing first order kinetics
B. decrease in concentration expontially with time
C. have a half-life independent of dose
D. show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear
E. show a constant fraction of the drug eliminated per unit time
5. Which of the following drugs has the largest therapeutic index ?
A. Drug A LD50=150mg, ED50=100mg
B. Drug B LD50=100mg, ED50=50mg
C. Drug C LD50=250mg, ED50=100mg
D. Drug D LD50=300mg, ED50=50mg
E. Drug E LD50=300mg, ED50=150mg
6. A drug eliminated with first-order kinetics, the concentration of the drug in plasma is 100mg/L at 9 am after administration of a single dose, and at 6 pm the drug plasma concentration is 12.5 mg/L. So, its t1/2 is
A. 4h
B. 5h
C. 6h
D. 3h
E. 12h
7. The pharmacological mechanism of side effect is
A. overdose
B. low in selectivity
C. hypersensitivity
D. administration of drug for a long time
E. the sensitivity of the body
8. After repeated administration of phenobarbital sodium, the patients complain the drug is less useful, this phenomenon is called
A. tolerance
B. resistance
C. dependence
D. side reaction
E. residual effect
9. The bioavailability is
A. the quantity of drug absorbed after oral administration
B. the rate of drug absorbed after oral administration
C. the ratio of AUC(oral)/AUC(intravenous)
D. the area under curve of oral administration
E. the area under curve of intravenous administration
10. Which of the following statements is correct
A. if 10mg of drug A produces the same response as 100mg of drug B, drug A is more efficacious than drug B.
B. the greater the efficacy, the greater the potency of a drug
C. n selecting a drug, potency is usually more important than efficacy
D. a competitive antagonist increases ED50
E. variation in response to a drug among different individuals is most likely to occur with a drug showing a large therapeutic index
11. The maximal effect of a drug is called
A. potency
B. efficacy
C. affinity
D. toxic effect
E. margin of safety
12. Property of a partial agonist is
A. high affinity and high intrinsic activity
B. low affinity and low intrinsic activity
C. high affinity and low intrinsic activity
D. low affinity and high intrinsic activity
E. high affinity and no intrinsic activity
13. The drugs that can pass across the blood brain barrier are
A. small in molecular weight and ionized drugs
B. small in molecular weight and nonionized drugs
C. large in molecular weight and ionized drugs
D. large in molecular weight and nonionized drugs
E. all of above are not true
14. The effect of pilocarpine on eye is
A. miosis, increase intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation
B. miosis, decrease intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation
C. mydriasis, decrease intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation
D. mydriasis, increase intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation
E. mydriasis, increase intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation
15. The intoxication of tubocurarine can be antagonized by
A. atropine
B. adrenaline
C. neostigmine
D. dopamine
E. ephedrine
16. Which of the following drugs can be used in treatment of glaucoma?
A. neostigmine
B. pilocarpine
C. phentolamine
D. norepinephrine
E. atropine
17. When presynaptic α-receptor is activated
A. the release of NE is not influenced
B. the release of NE is increased
C. the synthesis of NE is increased
D. the release of NE is decreased
E. none of above
18. The main mechanism of atropine in the treatment of shock is
A. antivagal nerve to stimulate heart
B. vasodilation and microcirculation improvement
C. bronchodilation
D. CNS stimulation and improve respiratory
E. dilate coronary artery and renal vessel
19. Atropine can not be used to treat patients with
A. bradycardia
B. glaucoma
C. infectious shock
D. neostigmine overdose
E. intoxication of organophosphate
20. The main route of inactivation of ACh is
A. it is destroyed by MAO
B. it is destroyed by COMT
C. it is retaken into the cytoplasm
D. it is hydrolyzed by cholinesterase
E. A+D
21. Atropine has the following effects except
A. mydriasis
B. spasm of accommodation
C. increasing intraocular pressure
D. decrease salivary secretion
E. stimulating CNS in larger dose
22. Which is correct description about the β-adrenoceptor effect?
A．both vascular dilation and bronchial dilation belong to β2 effect
B．both cardiac excitation and bronchial dilation belong to β2 effect
C．both cardiac excitation and vascular dilation belong to β1 effect
D．both cardiac excitation and vascular dilation belong to β2 effect
E．both cardiac excitation and bronchial dilation belong to β1 effect
23. Epinephrine is used in local anesthetic solution in order to
A．offset arrhythmic effect on the heart
B．increase the potency of the local anesthetic
C．offset negative inotropic actions on the heart
D．reduce the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic and prolong its duration
E．all of them
24. Which is NOT the indication of phentolamine?
A．shock
B．diagnosis of pheochromacytoma
C．male sexual dysfunction
D．primary hypertension
E．peripheral vascular occlusive disorders
25. The dilation of bronchial smooth muscle can be caused by
A. α1 -receptor activation
B. α2 -receptor activation
C. β2 -receptor activation
D. β1 -receptor activation
E. M-receptor activation
26. The released norepinephrine is disposed mainly by
A．the metabolism in the liver
B．enzymatic inactivation
C．reuptake by the neuronal terminal
D．hydrolysis
E. MAO and COMT in the circulation
27. β-antagonists can NOT be used in the treatment of
A．hypertension
B．bronchial asthma
C．tachycardia
D．angina pectoris
E．hyperthyroidism
28. The mechanism of anti-hypertensive effect of losartan is
A. decrement of renin activity
B. inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
C. blockade of the angiotensin Ⅱ type 1 receptors
D. increment of kinin synthesis
E. causing vasodilation directly
29. The therapeutic action of β-adrenergic receptor blockers such as propranolol in angina pectoris is believed to be primarily the result of
A. Reduced production of catecholamines
B. Dilation of the coronary vasculature
C. Decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen
D. Increased peripheral resistance
E. Increased sensitivity to catecholamines
30. Captopril can do all of the following EXCEPT
A. inhibit ACE
B. damage heart
C. decrease angiotensin Ⅱ concentration in the blood
D. increase sodium in the urine
E. increase bradykinin concentration in the blood
31. Which of the following antianginal drugs is not useful in variant angina?
A. verapamil
B. nitroglycerin
C. propranolol
D. nifedipine
E.diltiazem
32. The correct statement about epinephrine is that
A. inhibition of CNS is very strong
B. influence on metabolism is weak
C. it can produce tachycardia
D. it is only administered by iv
E. it can only activate a agonist
33. The reason that digoxin can reduce the ventricular rate of atrial fibrillation patient is answer:
A. Decreasing automaticity of ventricles
B. Decreasing automaticity of atria
C. Reducing the conduction of A-V node
D. improving cardiac ischemia
E. shortening the effective refractory period atria
34. If quinidine and digoxin are administered concurrently, which of the following effects dose quinidine have on digoxin ?
A. the absorption of digoxin from the GI tract is decreased
B. the metabolism of digoxin is prevented
C. the clearance of digoxin is prevented
D. the effect of digoxin on AV node is antagonized
E. the ability of digoxin to inhibit sodium-potassium ATPase is reduced
35. Which of the followings does not belong to the first-line drugs therapy for mild congestive heart failure currently?
A. A vasodilator such as hydralazine
B. A cardiac Glycoside such as digoxin
C. A β-adrenergic agonist such as norepinephrine
D. A diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide
E. An ACE inhibitor, such as captopril
36. Which of the following drugs would reverse myocardial remodeling and reduce overall mortality in patients with heart failure?
A. Cardiac glucosides
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Diuretics
D.Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
E. Calcium channel blockers
37. All of the following measures can be used in the treatment of digoxin-induced arrhythmia EXCEPT
A. stopping digoxin administration
B. diuretic agents such as furosemide are used to promote the excretion of digoxin
C. phenytoin administration
D. atropine administration
E. lidocaine administration
38. Which of the following drugs decrease cholesterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase?
A. Niacin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Lovastatin
D. Colestyramine
E. Probucol
39. The mechanism of Positive myodynamial action of cardiac glycoside is due to
A. exciting vagus nerve.
B. exciting sympathetic nerve
C. activating Na+-K+-ATPase
D. inhibiting Na+-K+-ATPase
E. inhibiting Na+-Ca2+ exchange
40. Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmia caused by cardiac glycoside ?
A. lidocaine
B. amiodarone
C. propranolol
D. phenytoin sodium
E. quinidine
PART Ⅱ Please explain the following pharmacological terms（20 points, 4/item）
1. Agonist
2. First-pass elimination
3. Side reaction
4. parameter of agtaonism(pA2)
5. dependence
PART Ⅲ Assay Questions （20 points, 10/item）
1. Why is epinephrine used as the drug of choice in the treatment of allergic shock?
2. Please describe the mechanism of ACEI on the treatment of hypertension disease.
ANSWERS:
1-5 BDBDD 6-10 DBACD 11-15 BCBBC 16-20 BDBBD
21-25 BADDC 26-30 CBBCB 31-35 CCCCA 36-40 BBCDA