2. Which of the Following Represents the Loopback for Ipv6 Addresses?
Exam 2
1. You have a network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What would the CIDR notation be for this network?
A. /16
B. /24
C. /20
D. /12
2. Which of the following represents the loopback for IPv6 addresses?
A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:1
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 172.0.0.1
3. What type of query receives the name resolution request and immediately responds with the best information it possesses at the time?
A. iterative
B. recursive
C. replication
D. notification
4. Which network has the three most significant bits as 110, with the remainder of the first three octets as the network number and the last octet as the host number?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
5. Which of the following is not shared within a forest?
A. global catalog
B. trust relationships
C. schema
D. SQL databases
6. What is the minimum domain functional level needed to include last interactive logon and fine-grained password policies?
A. Windows 2000 Native
B. Windows Server 2003
C. Windows Server 2008
D. Windows Server 2008 R2
7. What allows a user access to read or modify an Active Directory object?
A. permission
B. right
C. privilege
D. customization
8. What tool do you use to change the domain or forest functional level?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Group Policy Management console
9. How often does inter-site replication occur by default?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 1 hour
10. When you configure a site link object, which attribute allows you to define the path that replication will take?
A. cost
B. schedule
C. frequency
D. none of the above
11. What do you call the period it takes for a change to replicate to all domain controllers?
A. frequency period
B. replication period
C. max period
D. latency period
12. What Windows component allows administrators to create queries based on hardware, software, operating systems, and services?
A. VBScript
B. Windows Scripting Language
C. Windows Management Instrumentation
D. .NET Framework
13. Which migration path is a two-phase process where you first upgrade an existing forest and domain and then organize the AD objects as needed?
A. domain upgrade migration
B. domain restructure migration
C. upgrade-then-restructure migration
D. full migration
14. What do you need to install to migrate passwords from one domain to another domain?
A. AFS
B. AFD
C. SMB
D. PES
15. In ADFS, which domain includes the user accounts employed to visit the partner’s domain with the resources to be accessed?
A. account partner
B. resource partner
C. source partner
D. target partner
16. What is the traditional method used to access files remotely from the UNIX world?
A. NetBIOS share
B. SMB
C. NFS
D. UNIXShare
17. In Windows, what is used to accommodate organizations that have both Windows and UNIX computers?
A. Services for Network File System
B. UNIXShare
C. NFS Proxy
D. NFS Converter
18. What is the minimum connection should a medium branch office should have to the HQ connection to HQ?
A. 1.0 Mbps
B. 1.5 Mbps
C. 10 Mbps
D. 45 Mbps
19. What is the disadvantage of using a full domain controller?
A. It provides the fastest performance possible.
B. It provides the best chance of corruption.
C. It requires additional accounts to be configured.
D. It provides the largest attack surface.
20. Where do you modify the default Password Replication Policy so that the RODC caches passwords for selected users?
A. Active Directory RODC console
B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Active Directory Group Policies Management Console
21. Up to how many workstations can BranchCache typically support when running distributed cache mode?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
22. Modifications to .msi files require transform files, which have which extension?
A. .msit
B. .mse
C. .msx
D. .mst
23. What is one way to simplify the process of deploying applications on a large number of computers?
A. thin client computing
B. server-side processing
C. mainframe computing
D. Remote Desktop Services
24. What is the modern equivalent of mainframe computing, in which servers perform most of the processing and clients are relatively simple devices that provide the user interface?
A. Role Services
B. Remote Desktop Services
C. Domain Services
D. Function Services
25. ______, now in version 6.1, is based on the T.120 protocol standards published by the International Telecommunications Union (ITU).
A. Remote Access
B. Remote Desktop Protocol
C. Remote Assistance
D. Remote Control Protocol
26. To separate the client processes for individual sessions, what kind of unique identifier does the terminal server assigns each session?
A. GUID
B. ACL
C. Session ID
D. Console number
27. Which WSUS architecture configuration is the simplest configuration?
A. single WSUS server
B. replica WSUS servers
C. disconnected WSUS servers
D. autonomous WSUS servers
28. Which WSUS architecture is recommended for larger, well-connected branch offices?
A. single WSUS server
B. replica WSUS servers
C. disconnected WSUS servers
D. autonomous WSUS servers
29. What is the minimum memory to install WSUS?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 3 GB
D. 4 GB
30. Which component does WSUS work on?
A. Application Services
B. IIS
C. RRAS
D. WINS
31. When SCCM determines a computer’s desired configuration, what does it compare to a client computer?
A. preset configuration
B. test configuration
C. configuration baseline
D. predefined configuration
32. To protect an enterprise network, what do you need to install to examine incoming and outgoing traffic?
A. email servers
B. honey pots
C. RADIUS servers
D. firewalls
33. What type of connectivity creates a secure point-to-point connection across either a private network or a public network, such as the Internet?
A. remote access
B. dial-up networking
C. virtual private network (VPN)
D. custom configuration
34. Which authentication method sends the username and password in clear text?
A. PEAP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. MS-CHAPv2
35. What optional component can be deployed to allow non-compliant client computers to achieve network compliance and gain network access?
A. enforcement server
B. health policy server
C. health requirement server
D. remediation server
36. What type of dynamic disk consists of an identical amount of space on two physical disks?
A. simple volume
B. mirrored volume
C. striped volume
D. spanned volume
37. What file system provides the most granular user access control as well as other advanced storage features, including file encryption and compression?
A. NTFS
B. FAT
C. LTP
D. SWAP
38. The Distributed File System (DFS) implemented in the Windows Server 2008 File Services role includes two technologies: DFS Namespaces and ______.
A. DFS Remediation
B. DFS Replication
C. DNS Replication
D. DFS Topology
39. What type of site can users access to employ browser-based workspaces to share information in various ways?
A. Windows Server Update Services
B. Windows SharePoint 2010 Foundation
C. Windows SQL Server
D. Windows IIS
40. Hyper-V uses what type of virtualization?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
41. Which of the following statements is true regarding Hyper-V?
A. It requires a 64-bit version of Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. It requires a 32-bit version of Windows.
C. You have to install Virtual Server 2005 before installing Hyper-V.
D. You need to enable Jumbo frames before installing Hyper-V.
42. In Hyper-V, when a virtual machine it is placed in a save file, it creates what kind of file?
A. .vmc
B. .vhd
C. .vsv
D. .avhd
43. What type of servers should not be virtualized?
A. email servers
B. SQL servers
C. file servers
D. servers with high I/O or processor requirements
44. What is an electronic document that contains a person’s or organization name, serial number, expiration date, and the holder’s public key?
A. digital certificate
B. private key
C. digital signature
D. hash certificate
45. What is the most common digital certificate?
A. X.500
B. X.509 version 3
C. hash certificate
D. EFS certificate
46. Which of the following contains a digest of the certificate data used for digital signing?
A. certificate policies
B. friendly name
C. thumbprint algorithm
D. thumbprint
47. Which basic type of CA does not integrate into the Active Directory environment and does not use certificate templates?
A. subordinate
B. enterprise
C. standalone
D. intermediate
48. Which of the following is not a required permission that must be granted to the same user or group for the autoenrollment certificate template permission to function correctly?
A. Allow Autoenroll
B. Allow Enroll
C. Allow Read
D. Allow Write
49. Which version of Windows Server 2008 must computers be running to create a failover cluster?
A. Basic
B. Enterprise
C. Standard
D. Web
50. When performing backups, what do you call the collection of boot files, system registry settings, system protected files (SPF), Active Directory files, shared system volume (SYSVOL), and COM+ class registration database?
A. Role Services
B. System State
C. Registered Services
D. Function Services
51. What mechanism automatically retains file copies on a server volume in multiple versions from specific points in time?
A. system state
B. preferred copies
C. Net copies
D. shadow copies
52. Where do you install the enterprise root CA?
A. domain controller
B. standalone server
C. dedicated Windows workstation
D. member server that is part of the Active Directory domain
53. Which of the following template versions provides backward compatibility for CAs running Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 family operating systems?
A. version 1
B. version 2
C. version 3
D. version 4
54. Which of the following Windows Server 2008 Certificate templates allows user authentication, EFS encryption, secure email, and certificate trust list signing?
A. user
B. administrator
C. computer
D. domain controller
55. Which of the following steps is not part of the certificate enrollment process?
A. generating keys
B. requesting the certificate
C. verifying the certificate
D. sending or posting the certificate
56. What computer component generates a private key and the public key?
A. Cryptographic Service Provider
B. Key Pair Generator
C. CA generator
D. CRL provider
57. What is Microsoft’s implementation of the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol?
A. Network Device Enrollment Service
B. X.509 Device Enrollment Service
C. CA Device Enrollment Service
D. CA Device Agent
58. How many consecutive heartbeats must fail before convergence occurs?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
59. To balance the initial connection traffic among terminal servers, you can use an ______cluster.
A. fail-over
B. NLB
C. tolerant
D. active-active
60. You can implement shadow copies only for an entire ______; you cannot select specific shares, folders, or files.
A. folder
B. volume
C. file
D. computer